Nursing Elites

1. A patient is taking a first-generation H1 blocker for the treatment of allergic rhinitis. It is most important for the nurse to assess for which adverse effect?

• A. Skin flushing
• B. Wheezing
• C. Insomnia
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Adverse Effect of Histamine � First Generation H1 blockers include dry mouth.

2. During a developmental screening, a 4-year-old child is asked to perform a task. Which of the following tasks should the nurse expect the child to perform?

• A. Draw a stick figure with seven body parts
• B. Draw a circle
• C. Identify right from left hand
• D. Tie their shoelaces

Correct answer: B

Rationale: At 4 years old, children are typically able to draw a circle, which is a developmental milestone for their age. Drawing a stick figure with specific body parts might be beyond their developmental level, identifying right from left hand can be challenging, and tying shoelaces requires more advanced motor skills.

3. Marge is a 2-year-old girl who does not sit and eat at mealtimes but rather brings food to many rooms, eats a few bites, and drops it. Her parents report that she is a 'fussy eater.' Marge is significantly below weight for her age. She does not have any oral motor structure abnormalities, but eats only certain foods with the same texture. Which intervention strategy would be best to address the environmental context?

• A. Prolong mealtimes and eliminate all snacks
• B. Provide high-calorie snacks and meals at the table throughout the day
• C. Allow Marge to eat whenever and wherever she wants in the house
• D. Require Marge to eat everything on her plate and at snack

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the case of Marge, who exhibits selective eating habits and struggles with weight gain, providing high-calorie snacks and meals at the table throughout the day can be an effective intervention. This strategy can help increase her food intake in a structured environment, promoting healthier eating habits and potentially addressing her below-average weight status. Choice A, prolonging mealtimes and eliminating all snacks, may not be the best approach as it could lead to more food refusal and stress during meals. Choice C, allowing Marge to eat whenever and wherever she wants in the house, may further enable her selective eating behavior and hinder progress. Choice D, requiring Marge to eat everything on her plate and at snack, can create a negative mealtime environment and may not address the underlying causes of her eating habits. Therefore, providing high-calorie snacks and meals at designated times offers a balanced approach to support Marge's nutritional needs and overall well-being.

4. When educating a patient about sildenafil (Viagra), which adverse effect should be a priority for the patient to report to his prescriber?

• A. Flushing
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Hearing loss
• D. Dyspepsia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Hearing loss.' In rare cases, Viagra has been associated with sudden hearing loss, typically in one ear, which can be partial or complete. Any onset of hearing problems while using Viagra should be reported promptly to the prescriber. It is recommended to discontinue the medication if it is used for erectile dysfunction. 'Flushing,' 'Diarrhea,' and 'Dyspepsia' are known adverse effects of Viagra but are generally less serious compared to hearing loss.

5. What does the abbreviation BPD mean in a medical chart?

• A. Brain premature deficit
• B. Bronchiopulmonary dysplasia
• C. Bilateral partial disorder
• D. Baby post delivery

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bronchiopulmonary Dysplasia. BPD refers to a chronic lung disorder that primarily affects premature infants or those who have been on ventilator support. It is characterized by abnormal development of the lungs and breathing difficulties. This abbreviation is commonly seen on medical charts in neonatal and pediatric settings.

Similar Questions