Nursing Elites

1. The nurse provides discharge instructions to a patient prescribed verapamil SR 120mg PO daily for HTN. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the medication?

• A. �I will take the medication with grapefruit juice each morning.�
• B. �I should expect occasional loose stools from this medication�
• C. �I�ll need to reduce the amount of fiber in my diet�
• D. �I must swallow the pill whole.�

Correct answer: D

Rationale: �SR� indicates that the drug is sustained release; therefore, the patient must swallow the pill intact, without chewing or crushing, which would result in a bolus effect. Grapefruit juice should be avoided, because it can inhibit intestinal and hepatic metabolism of the drug, thereby raising the drug level. Constipation, not loose stools, is a common side effect. Increasing fluids and dietary fiber can help prevent this adverse effect.

2. Which statement best describes the use of activity or task analysis?

• A. A foundational tool in occupational therapy for over a century
• B. A technique used to evaluate motor deficits in pediatrics
• C. Recently applied in some areas of pediatric occupational therapy
• D. A tool used exclusively by occupational therapy practitioners

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'A foundational tool in occupational therapy for over a century.' Activity or task analysis has been a fundamental method in occupational therapy for a long time. It involves breaking down activities or tasks into smaller components to understand the skills required and identify areas of difficulty. This process helps occupational therapists develop effective intervention strategies to improve a client's ability to perform daily activities independently. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because activity or task analysis is not limited to evaluating motor deficits in pediatrics, recently applied only in some areas of pediatric occupational therapy, or exclusively used by occupational therapy practitioners. It is a widely used and established method in the field of occupational therapy.

3. A child is being assessed for possible appendicitis with perforation. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Hyperactive bowel sounds
• B. Abdominal distension
• C. Hypoactive bowel sounds
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a child with appendicitis and possible perforation, the nurse should expect bradycardia due to peritoneal irritation. Bradycardia is a common response to peritoneal inflammation or infection, indicating a possible serious complication. Hyperactive bowel sounds, abdominal distension, and hypoactive bowel sounds are more commonly associated with other gastrointestinal conditions and are less likely to be present in a child with appendicitis and perforation. Therefore, the correct answer is bradycardia (D) as it aligns with the expected physiological response in this scenario.

4. A child with croup has an increased PCO2, a decreased pH, and a normal HCO3 blood gas value. Which finding does the nurse report to the healthcare provider based on these data?

• A. Uncompensated metabolic alkalosis
• B. Uncompensated metabolic acidosis
• C. Uncompensated respiratory acidosis
• D. Uncompensated respiratory alkalosis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The blood gas values indicate uncompensated respiratory acidosis. In respiratory acidosis, there is an increased PCO2, decreased pH, and a normal HCO3 level. This condition requires immediate attention to address the underlying respiratory problem causing the acidosis.

5. Parents are speaking with the urologist about their son's undescended testicle. Which statement by the child's father causes the nurse to determine he understands the information presented?

• A. An undescended testicle can reduce fertility.
• B. The testicle usually descends spontaneously during the first month of life.
• C. Surgical correction reduces the risk for testicular tumors.
• D. The optimal time to surgically correct the condition is at diagnosis.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because an undescended testicle can reduce fertility. Even after surgical correction (orchiopexy), fertility rates may be reduced, especially when one testis remains undescended. The statement in choice B is incorrect as the testicle should have descended into the scrotum by the time the infant is 4-6 months old. While choice C is true that surgical correction can reduce the risk of testicular tumors, the question focuses on the father's understanding of the information presented, which is better reflected in choice A. Choice D is incorrect because the optimal time for surgical correction of an undescended testicle is typically around 6-18 months of age, not necessarily at the time of diagnosis.

Similar Questions