Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory report of an infant who is receiving treatment for severe dehydration. The professional should identify which of the following laboratory values indicates effectiveness of the current treatment?

• A. Potassium 2.9 mEq/L
• B. Sodium 140 mEq/L
• C. Urine specific gravity 1.035
• D. BUN 25 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A sodium level of 140 mEq/L within the expected reference range indicates effective treatment for dehydration. In dehydration, sodium levels are often elevated, so a normal sodium level suggests that the treatment is helping to restore the electrolyte balance in the infant's body.

2. A 4-year-old client with intractable seizures has been on a ketogenic diet for the last 6 months, with a decrease in seizure activity. This child is now admitted to the pediatric unit with left-sided pain. Which possible complication to this diet does the nurse suspect?

• A. Appendicitis
• B. Bowel obstruction
• C. Urinary tract infection
• D. Kidney stones

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The ketogenic diet increases the risk of kidney stones.

3. During an assessment, a healthcare professional is evaluating an infant with pneumonia. Which of the following findings should be the priority for the healthcare professional to report to the provider?

• A. Nasal flaring
• B. WBC count of 11,300
• C. Diarrhea
• D. Abdominal distension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing an infant with pneumonia, the priority finding to report to the provider is nasal flaring. Nasal flaring indicates acute respiratory distress, which can be a life-threatening condition requiring immediate intervention. Monitoring and addressing respiratory distress take precedence over other symptoms or laboratory results in this situation.

4. Which clean-catch urinalysis finding should raise the most concern for a child admitted to an urgent care center to rule out a urinary tract infection?

• A. 2+ white blood cells
• B. 1+ red blood cells
• C. Urine appearance: cloudy
• D. Specific gravity: 1.009

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A specific gravity of 1.009 is low, indicating diluted urine, which can be concerning in the context of a urinary tract infection. Diluted urine may suggest inadequate concentration due to increased fluid intake or impaired kidney function, which are important considerations in the assessment of a possible UTI.

5. For which patient diagnosis would a prescription for nifedipine be least appropriate?

• A. Angina Pectoris
• B. Essential HTN
• C. Atrial Fibrillation
• D. Vasospastic Angina

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Nifedipine primarily acts as a calcium channel blocker, exerting its effects on vascular smooth muscle. It is not effective for treating dysrhythmias like Atrial Fibrillation, which involve abnormalities in the heart's electrical system. Nifedipine is commonly prescribed for conditions such as angina pectoris, essential hypertension, and vasospastic angina due to its vasodilatory and anti-anginal properties. Choices A, B, and D are more appropriate as nifedipine can help in managing angina pectoris, hypertension, and vasospastic angina by reducing myocardial oxygen demand and dilating coronary arteries.

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