ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. What term refers to the manner of walking?
- A. Gait
- B. Range of motion
- C. Flexion and extension
- D. Hopping
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Gait specifically refers to the manner in which a person walks. It encompasses the pattern, rhythm, and style of walking, making it the most appropriate term in this context. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Range of motion refers to the extent of movement of a joint, flexion and extension relate to bending and straightening movements at a joint, and hopping is a specific type of movement that involves jumping on one foot.
2. A healthcare provider is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following clients is not at risk for pulmonary embolism?
- A. A client who has a BMI of 30
- B. A female client who is postmenopausal
- C. A client who has a fractured femur
- D. A client who has chronic atrial fibrillation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Postmenopausal status is not a significant risk factor for pulmonary embolism. Risk factors for pulmonary embolism include obesity (BMI of 30 or higher), immobility such as having a fractured femur, and conditions like chronic atrial fibrillation that increase the risk of blood clot formation. While postmenopausal status may be associated with other health risks, it is not directly linked to an increased risk of pulmonary embolism.
3. The healthcare provider orders the administration of an ampicillin capsule TID p.o. The healthcare provider should give the medication...
- A. Three times a day orally
- B. Three times a day after meals
- C. Two times a day by mouth
- D. Two times a day before meals
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In medical abbreviations, 'TID' stands for 'ter in die,' which means three times a day, and 'p.o.' stands for 'per os,' which means orally. Therefore, the correct administration schedule for the ampicillin capsule is three times a day orally. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the prescribed frequency or route of administration specified in the order.
4. A client with heart failure has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. Taking furosemide can cause your potassium levels to be high
- B. Eat foods that are high in sodium
- C. Rise slowly when getting out of bed
- D. Taking furosemide can cause you to be overhydrated
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Educating the client on the importance of rising slowly when getting out of bed is crucial due to the risk of orthostatic hypotension associated with furosemide use. This precaution helps prevent dizziness and falls. Options A and D are incorrect as furosemide commonly causes hypokalemia and dehydration, respectively, rather than high potassium levels or overhydration. Option B is inaccurate as clients on furosemide need to reduce sodium intake to manage fluid retention.
5. Which of the following scenarios represents nursing malpractice?
- A. The nurse administers penicillin to a patient with a documented history of allergy to the drug. The patient experiences an allergic reaction and suffers cerebral damage due to anoxia.
- B. The nurse applies a hot water bottle or a heating pad to the abdomen of a patient with abdominal cramping.
- C. The nurse assists a patient out of bed with the bed locked in position; the patient slips and fractures his right humerus.
- D. The nurse administers the wrong medication to a patient, resulting in vomiting. This error is documented and reported to the physician and the nursing supervisor.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Administering a drug to a patient with a known allergy, leading to severe harm such as an allergic reaction causing cerebral damage due to anoxia, constitutes nursing malpractice. In this scenario, the nurse failed to adhere to the standard of care by administering a medication that the patient was allergic to, resulting in serious harm, which is a clear example of malpractice in nursing.
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