ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. For administering a cleansing enema, what is the common position typically used?
- A. Sims left lateral
- B. Dorsal Recumbent
- C. Supine
- D. Prone
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct position for administering a cleansing enema is the Sims left lateral position. This position is preferred as it helps to facilitate the procedure by allowing gravity to assist in the flow of the enema solution. The individual lies on their left side with the right knee flexed towards the chest, which helps to promote retention of the enema solution and its distribution throughout the colon. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. The dorsal recumbent position (Choice B) is commonly used for physical examinations of the abdomen and genitalia. The supine position (Choice C) involves lying flat on the back and is not ideal for administering enemas. The prone position (Choice D) is lying flat on the stomach and is not suitable for administering enemas.
2. Which of the following conditions may necessitate fluid restriction?
- A. Fever
- B. Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
- C. Renal Failure
- D. Dehydration
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Renal failure often necessitates fluid restriction to prevent fluid overload. In renal failure, the kidneys are unable to effectively filter and excrete excess fluids, leading to fluid accumulation in the body. Restricting fluid intake helps manage this condition by preventing further fluid buildup and complications such as edema and electrolyte imbalances.
3. To assess the kidney function of a patient with an indwelling urinary (Foley) catheter, the nurse measures the hourly urine output. When should she notify the physician?
- A. Less than 30 ml/hour
- B. 64 ml in 2 hours
- C. 90 ml in 3 hours
- D. 125 ml in 4 hours
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Notifying the physician is necessary when the urine output is less than 30 ml/hour as it indicates impaired kidney function. Adequate urine output is essential for monitoring kidney function, and a urine output less than 30 ml/hour could suggest potential renal issues that require medical attention.
4. What is the abbreviation for micro drop?
- A. µgtt
- B. gtt
- C. mdr
- D. mgts
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct abbreviation for micro drop is 'µgtt,' where the symbol 'µ' represents micro and 'gtt' stands for drop. Choice B, 'gtt,' is the abbreviation for drop, not specifically for micro drop. Choice C, 'mdr,' and Choice D, 'mgts,' are not standard abbreviations for micro drop and are incorrect.
5. The healthcare professional must verify the client’s identity before the administration of medication. Which of the following is the safest way to identify the client?
- A. Ask the client for their name
- B. Check the client’s identification band
- C. State the client’s name aloud and ask the client to repeat it
- D. Check the room number
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Verifying the client's identity before administering medication is crucial to ensure patient safety. Checking the client’s identification band is the safest and most reliable method to confirm the client's identity. Identification bands are specifically designed to prevent errors in patient identification and help healthcare professionals administer care to the correct individual. Asking the client for their name (Choice A) may lead to errors if the client is unable to communicate or if there is a language barrier. Stating the client’s name aloud and asking them to repeat it (Choice C) relies on the client's ability to respond accurately. Checking the room number (Choice D) does not directly confirm the client's identity and may lead to errors if multiple patients are in the same room.
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