ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. For administering a cleansing enema, what is the common position typically used?
- A. Sims left lateral
- B. Dorsal Recumbent
- C. Supine
- D. Prone
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct position for administering a cleansing enema is the Sims left lateral position. This position is preferred as it helps to facilitate the procedure by allowing gravity to assist in the flow of the enema solution. The individual lies on their left side with the right knee flexed towards the chest, which helps to promote retention of the enema solution and its distribution throughout the colon. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. The dorsal recumbent position (Choice B) is commonly used for physical examinations of the abdomen and genitalia. The supine position (Choice C) involves lying flat on the back and is not ideal for administering enemas. The prone position (Choice D) is lying flat on the stomach and is not suitable for administering enemas.
2. When a chest tube is accidentally removed from a client, which of the following actions should the nurse NOT take first?
- A. Obtain a chest x-ray
- B. Apply sterile gauze to the insertion site
- C. Place tape around the insertion site
- D. Assess respiratory status
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a chest tube is accidentally removed, the priority action for the nurse is to immediately seal the insertion site with a gloved hand, a sterile occlusive dressing, or petroleum gauze to prevent air from entering the pleural space and causing a pneumothorax. Applying sterile gauze to the insertion site is not the correct initial action. The first step is to prevent respiratory compromise by ensuring the site is sealed. Therefore, the nurse should not apply sterile gauze to the insertion site first.
3. Which of the following signs and symptoms would the nurse expect to find when assessing an Asian patient for postoperative pain following abdominal surgery?
- A. Decreased blood pressure and heart rate and shallow respirations
- B. Quiet crying
- C. Immobility, diaphoresis, and avoidance of deep breathing or coughing
- D. Changing position every 2 hours
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Immobility, diaphoresis, and avoidance of deep breathing or coughing are common signs of pain.
4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following information should the healthcare professional not expect to find?
- A. Bradypnea
- B. Pleural friction rub
- C. Petechiae
- D. Tachycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with a pulmonary embolism, bradypnea, which is abnormally slow breathing, is not an expected finding. Pulmonary embolism typically presents with tachypnea (rapid breathing) due to the body's compensatory mechanism to increase oxygen levels. Pleural friction rub, petechiae, and tachycardia are commonly associated with a pulmonary embolism due to the impaired oxygenation and increased workload on the heart. Therefore, the healthcare professional should not expect to find bradypnea during the assessment of a client with a pulmonary embolism.
5. A client with tuberculosis is receiving a new prescription for isoniazid (INH). The nurse should instruct the client to report which of the following findings as an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. You might notice yellowing of your skin.
- B. You might experience pain in your joints.
- C. You might notice tingling of your hands.
- D. You might experience loss of appetite.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Tingling of the hands is a common adverse effect of isoniazid (INH) due to its potential to cause peripheral neuropathy. This sensation can be an early sign of nerve damage, and thus, the client should be instructed to report it promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management.
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