ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam
1. A client in labor is receiving oxytocin. Which of the following findings indicates that the nurse should increase the rate of infusion?
- A. Urine output of 20 ml/hr.
- B. Montevideo units constantly at 300 mm Hg.
- C. FHR pattern showing absent variability.
- D. Contractions occurring every 5 minutes and lasting 30 seconds.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Montevideo units measure the strength and frequency of contractions during labor. A consistent Montevideo units reading of 300 mm Hg or higher is indicative of effective uterine contractions. In this scenario, an increase in the rate of oxytocin infusion may be warranted to further augment contractions and promote progress in labor. The other options, such as low urine output, absent variability in fetal heart rate, and short contractions, do not directly correlate with the need for an increase in oxytocin infusion rate.
2. How can preserving skin integrity impact the circular chain of infection?
- A. Host
- B. Reservoir
- C. Mode of transmission
- D. Portal of entry
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Preserving skin integrity plays a key role in breaking the chain of infection by eliminating the portal of entry for pathogens. When the skin is intact, it acts as a natural barrier that prevents pathogens from entering the body. By maintaining skin integrity through proper hygiene and wound care, the risk of infection is significantly reduced, disrupting the cycle of infection transmission.
3. A nurse obtained a client’s pulse and found the rate to be above normal. The nurse documents this finding as:
- A. Tachypnea
- B. Hyperpyrexia
- C. Arrhythmia
- D. Tachycardia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a nurse finds a client's pulse rate to be above normal, it is documented as tachycardia. Tachycardia specifically refers to an elevated heart rate, while tachypnea is rapid breathing, hyperpyrexia is high fever, and arrhythmia is an irregular heartbeat. Therefore, the correct term to describe an above-normal pulse rate is tachycardia.
4. Which of the following procedures always requires surgical asepsis?
- A. Vaginal instillation of conjugated estrogen
- B. Urinary catheterization
- C. Nasogastric tube insertion
- D. Colostomy irrigation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Surgical asepsis, which involves maintaining a sterile field and preventing contamination in a surgical setting, is required for urinary catheterization as it involves entering a sterile body cavity. Vaginal instillation of conjugated estrogen, nasogastric tube insertion, and colostomy irrigation do not always require surgical asepsis as they involve different levels of sterility and infection control measures.
5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following information should the healthcare professional not expect to find?
- A. Bradypnea
- B. Pleural friction rub
- C. Petechiae
- D. Tachycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with a pulmonary embolism, bradypnea, which is abnormally slow breathing, is not an expected finding. Pulmonary embolism typically presents with tachypnea (rapid breathing) due to the body's compensatory mechanism to increase oxygen levels. Pleural friction rub, petechiae, and tachycardia are commonly associated with a pulmonary embolism due to the impaired oxygenation and increased workload on the heart. Therefore, the healthcare professional should not expect to find bradypnea during the assessment of a client with a pulmonary embolism.
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