ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam
1. During a shift change, a nurse is receiving a report for an adult female client who is postoperative. Which of the following client information should the nurse report?
- A. High platelets
- B. Hypertension
- C. Lower platelets
- D. High temperatures
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Lower platelets can indicate a potential risk of bleeding in a postoperative client. Thrombocytopenia, or low platelet count, can lead to increased bleeding tendencies and should be promptly reported to the healthcare team for appropriate management. Monitoring platelet levels is crucial in postoperative care to prevent complications related to inadequate clotting ability.
2. For administering a cleansing enema, what is the common position typically used?
- A. Sims left lateral
- B. Dorsal Recumbent
- C. Supine
- D. Prone
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct position for administering a cleansing enema is the Sims left lateral position. This position is preferred as it helps to facilitate the procedure by allowing gravity to assist in the flow of the enema solution. The individual lies on their left side with the right knee flexed towards the chest, which helps to promote retention of the enema solution and its distribution throughout the colon. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. The dorsal recumbent position (Choice B) is commonly used for physical examinations of the abdomen and genitalia. The supine position (Choice C) involves lying flat on the back and is not ideal for administering enemas. The prone position (Choice D) is lying flat on the stomach and is not suitable for administering enemas.
3. A 38-year-old patient’s vital signs at 8 a.m. are axillary temperature 99.6°F (37.6°C); pulse rate 88; respiratory rate 30. Which findings should be reported?
- A. Respiratory rate only
- B. Temperature only
- C. Pulse rate and temperature
- D. Temperature and respiratory rate
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Both an elevated temperature and an increased respiratory rate are abnormal vital signs that could indicate an underlying health issue. Reporting both of these findings is crucial to ensure appropriate evaluation and intervention if needed.
4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
- A. WBC count 8,000/mm�
- B. Platelets 150,000/mm�
- C. Aspartate aminotransferase 10 units/L
- D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 75 mm/hr
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In clients with rheumatoid arthritis, an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a common finding and indicates inflammation in the body. A high ESR value suggests active disease activity and potential joint damage. Therefore, the healthcare professional should report an ESR of 75 mm/hr to the provider for further evaluation and management of the client's rheumatoid arthritis.
5. Which of the following blood tests should be performed before a blood transfusion?
- A. Prothrombin and coagulation time
- B. Blood typing and cross-matching
- C. Bleeding and clotting time
- D. Complete blood count (CBC) and electrolyte levels
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Before administering a blood transfusion, it is crucial to perform blood typing and cross-matching to ensure compatibility between the donor's blood and the recipient's blood. This process helps prevent adverse reactions such as transfusion reactions, which can be life-threatening. Prothrombin and coagulation time, bleeding and clotting time, as well as CBC and electrolyte levels are important tests in other clinical contexts, but for blood transfusions, blood typing and cross-matching are essential to ensure patient safety.
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