Nursing Elites

1. What ECG changes are associated with hyperkalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves
• B. ST depression
• C. Prominent U waves
• D. Elevated ST segments

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hyperkalemia is known to cause ST depression on an ECG. Flattened T waves are more commonly seen in hypokalemia. Prominent U waves are associated with hypokalemia rather than hyperkalemia. Elevated ST segments are not typical findings in hyperkalemia.

2. What should a healthcare provider monitor for in a patient with HIV and a CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3?

• A. Monitor for signs of infection
• B. Monitor for anemia
• C. Monitor for dehydration
• D. Monitor for bleeding

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise in a patient with HIV. Monitoring for signs of infection is crucial because the patient is at high risk of developing opportunistic infections. Anemia (choice B), dehydration (choice C), and bleeding (choice D) are not directly associated with a low CD4 T-cell count in patients with HIV.

3. What is the preferred electrical intervention for a patient with ventricular tachycardia with a pulse?

• A. Defibrillation
• B. Synchronized cardioversion
• C. Pacing
• D. Medication administration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Synchronized cardioversion is the preferred electrical intervention for ventricular tachycardia with a pulse. In this scenario, the heart still has an organized rhythm, so synchronized cardioversion is used to deliver a shock at a specific point in the cardiac cycle, aiming to restore a normal rhythm. Defibrillation (Choice A) is used for pulseless ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation. Pacing (Choice C) may be used for bradycardias or certain types of heart blocks. Medication administration (Choice D) can be considered for stable ventricular tachycardia, but synchronized cardioversion is the primary intervention for ventricular tachycardia with a pulse.

4. A client at high risk for iron deficiency anemia should increase the consumption of which of the following foods?

• A. Yogurt
• B. Apples
• C. Raisins
• D. Cheddar cheese

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Raisins. Raisins are a good source of iron, making them beneficial for a client at high risk for iron deficiency anemia. Yogurt (Choice A), apples (Choice B), and cheddar cheese (Choice D) are not significant sources of iron. Other iron-rich foods include dried fruits, red meat, and green leafy vegetables.

5. What is the priority intervention when a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration?

• A. Lower the height of the enema solution container
• B. Stop the procedure and remove the tubing
• C. Continue the enema at a slower rate
• D. Increase the flow of the enema solution

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to lower the height of the enema solution container. This action can help relieve abdominal cramping by slowing the flow of the enema, reducing discomfort for the patient. Choice B, stopping the procedure and removing the tubing, is not the priority as adjusting the height of the container can often resolve the issue without needing to stop the procedure completely. Choice C, continuing the enema at a slower rate, may not address the immediate discomfort experienced by the patient. Choice D, increasing the flow of the enema solution, can exacerbate the cramping and should be avoided.

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