Nursing Elites

1. What are the dietary recommendations for a patient with GERD?

• A. Avoid mint and spicy foods
• B. Eat large meals before bedtime
• C. Consume liquids with meals
• D. Avoid NSAIDs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid mint and spicy foods for a patient with GERD. These foods can increase gastric acid secretion and worsen symptoms of GERD. Choice B is incorrect because eating large meals before bedtime can exacerbate GERD symptoms due to increased gastric pressure when lying down. Choice C is also incorrect as consuming liquids with meals can lead to increased gastric distention, potentially triggering GERD symptoms. Choice D, avoiding NSAIDs, though important for some patients with GERD due to their potential to irritate the stomach lining, is not a general dietary recommendation for all GERD patients.

2. What is the first medication to give for wheezing due to an allergic reaction?

• A. Albuterol via nebulizer
• B. Cromolyn 20 mg via nebulizer
• C. Methylprednisolone 100 mg IV
• D. Aminophylline 500 mg IV

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Albuterol is the first-line medication for treating wheezing due to an allergic reaction. Albuterol is a short-acting beta-agonist that helps relieve bronchospasm quickly. Cromolyn is more commonly used for the prevention of asthma symptoms rather than for acute treatment. Methylprednisolone and aminophylline are not the first-line medications for acute wheezing due to an allergic reaction.

3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has unstable angina. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Breath sounds
• B. Temperature
• C. Blood pressure
• D. Creatine kinase

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Breath sounds. When caring for a client with unstable angina, changes in breath sounds could indicate left ventricular failure and pulmonary edema due to decreased cardiac output and reduced cardiac perfusion. Reporting any abnormalities in breath sounds promptly to the provider is crucial to prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are not directly related to the immediate management of unstable angina. Temperature, blood pressure, and creatine kinase levels are important parameters to monitor but are not the priority in this situation.

4. What is the priority intervention when a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration?

• A. Lower the height of the enema solution container
• B. Stop the procedure and remove the tubing
• C. Continue the enema at a slower rate
• D. Increase the flow of the enema solution

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to lower the height of the enema solution container. This action can help relieve abdominal cramping by slowing the flow of the enema, reducing discomfort for the patient. Choice B, stopping the procedure and removing the tubing, is not the priority as adjusting the height of the container can often resolve the issue without needing to stop the procedure completely. Choice C, continuing the enema at a slower rate, may not address the immediate discomfort experienced by the patient. Choice D, increasing the flow of the enema solution, can exacerbate the cramping and should be avoided.

5. What is the expected ECG finding in a patient with hypokalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves
• B. Elevated ST segments
• C. Widened QRS complexes
• D. Widened QRS complexes on the ECG

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flattened T waves. In hypokalemia, there is a decrease in serum potassium levels, which can lead to various ECG changes. One of the classic ECG findings associated with hypokalemia is the presence of flattened T waves. These T wave abnormalities are typically seen in multiple leads. Choice B, elevated ST segments, is not a typical ECG finding in hypokalemia. Choice C, widened QRS complexes, is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia rather than hypokalemia. Choice D is redundant and not a standard way of describing ECG findings.

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