ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B with NGN
1. How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with a chest tube?
- A. Ensuring the chest tube is secured properly and functioning
- B. Checking for air leaks and ensuring drainage is working
- C. Ensuring chest tube drainage is below chest level
- D. Ensuring proper documentation of chest tube output
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Proper documentation of chest tube output is crucial in the care of a patient with a chest tube. While ensuring the chest tube is secured and functioning, checking for air leaks, and maintaining drainage below chest level are important aspects of care, documentation of output is essential for monitoring the patient's condition, assessing the effectiveness of treatment, and ensuring appropriate interventions if needed.
2. A client requires suctioning every 2 hours. To whom should the nurse delegate this task?
- A. Delegate to a licensed practical nurse (LPN)
- B. Delegate to a registered nurse (RN)
- C. Delegate to a nursing assistant (NA)
- D. Perform the task independently
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to delegate the task to a licensed practical nurse (LPN). LPNs can typically perform suctioning, but it is essential to consider the state's practice guidelines and hospital policy. Option B, delegating to a registered nurse (RN), is not necessary for this task as LPNs are usually competent to handle suctioning. Option C, delegating to a nursing assistant (NA), may not be appropriate as suctioning may require a higher level of training and expertise. Option D, performing the task independently, is not the best choice as delegation is a key aspect of nursing practice to ensure tasks are appropriately assigned based on competency levels.
3. A healthcare provider prescribes a higher-than-usual dose of medication. What is the nurse's first action?
- A. Administer the medication and monitor closely.
- B. Hold the medication and consult the pharmacist.
- C. Ask another nurse to verify the dose.
- D. Call the provider for clarification.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to call the provider for clarification. When faced with a higher-than-usual dose of medication, the nurse's first action should be to contact the prescribing healthcare provider to confirm the dosage. Administering the medication without clarifying the dose with the provider can pose serious risks to the patient's safety. Holding the medication and consulting the pharmacist may be appropriate after contacting the provider for clarification. Asking another nurse to verify the dose is not the most appropriate action when dealing with an unusual prescription; direct communication with the provider is essential in such situations.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and has an external fetal monitor in place. The nurse observes late decelerations in the fetal heart rate. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Decrease the client's IV fluids
- B. Reposition the client
- C. Administer oxygen by face mask
- D. Document the findings
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Administering oxygen by face mask is the priority intervention when late decelerations are observed in the fetal heart rate. Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, and administering oxygen helps to improve fetal oxygenation. Repositioning the client may also be necessary to relieve pressure on the umbilical cord, but providing oxygen takes precedence to enhance fetal oxygenation. Decreasing IV fluids may not directly address the underlying issue leading to late decelerations. Documenting the findings is important but should not be the first action taken when managing late decelerations.
5. A healthcare professional is caring for a client with impaired mobility. Which of the following support devices should the healthcare professional plan to use to prevent the client from developing plantar flexion contractures?
- A. Sheepskin heel pad
- B. Footboard
- C. Trochanter roll
- D. Abduction pillow
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A footboard is the correct choice to prevent plantar flexion contractures by maintaining proper alignment of the feet. Plantar flexion contractures involve the foot pointing downward, and a footboard helps keep the foot in a neutral position. Choice A, the sheepskin heel pad, is used for pressure ulcer prevention and comfort but does not specifically address plantar flexion contractures. Choice C, the trochanter roll, is used for hip positioning, not foot alignment. Choice D, the abduction pillow, is used to maintain proper positioning of the legs but does not directly address plantar flexion contractures.
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