ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B with NGN
1. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for codeine for cough suppression. What is the priority instruction?
- A. Avoid driving
- B. Drink plenty of fluids
- C. Move slowly when standing up
- D. Take with food
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to 'Move slowly when standing up.' Codeine can cause orthostatic hypotension, a drop in blood pressure when changing positions, leading to dizziness or fainting. By advising the client to move slowly when standing up, the nurse helps prevent falls or injuries due to sudden drops in blood pressure. Choices A, B, and D are important instructions as well but not the priority when considering the risk of orthostatic hypotension associated with codeine.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer ampicillin 500 mg IV bolus every 6 hours. Available is ampicillin 500 mg in 50 mL dextrose 5% in water (D5W) to infuse over 20 minutes. The nurse should set the IV pump to deliver how many mL/hr?
- A. 100 mL/hr
- B. 150 mL/hr
- C. 200 mL/hr
- D. 250 mL/hr
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To infuse 50 mL over 20 minutes, the pump should be set to 150 mL/hr. This calculation ensures the correct rate for the infusion of the medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the given information.
3. A client in her first trimester of pregnancy is being taught by a nurse about over-the-counter medications that belong to pregnancy risk category B. Which of the following medications should the nurse include?
- A. Naproxen
- B. Aspirin
- C. Ibuprofen
- D. Acetaminophen
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Acetaminophen is the correct choice as it belongs to pregnancy risk category B, making it considered safe during pregnancy. Naproxen, Aspirin, and Ibuprofen are not recommended during pregnancy, especially in the first trimester, as they are classified in higher-risk categories which may be harmful to the developing fetus.
4. A client has a prescription for a clear liquid diet. Which of the following foods should the nurse allow the client to have?
- A. Lemon sherbet
- B. Milkshake
- C. Vanilla ice cream
- D. Grape juice
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Grape juice is the correct choice for a clear liquid diet because it is a liquid that is transparent and does not contain any solid particles. Lemon sherbet, milkshake, and vanilla ice cream are not appropriate for a clear liquid diet as they all contain solid particles or are not in liquid form.
5. A nurse is monitoring an older adult female client who had a myocardial infarction (MI) for the development of an acute kidney injury (AKI). Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as indicating an increased risk of AKI?
- A. Magnesium 2.0 mEq/L
- B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 20 mg/dL
- C. Serum Osmolality 290 mOsm/kg H2O
- D. Serum creatinine 1.8 mg/dL
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An elevated serum creatinine level (1.8 mg/dL) is a significant indicator of potential kidney impairment. In acute kidney injury (AKI), serum creatinine levels rise due to decreased kidney function, reflecting the kidneys' inability to effectively filter waste from the blood. Magnesium level, BUN, and serum osmolality are not direct indicators of kidney function or risk of AKI. Magnesium levels are more related to electrolyte balance, BUN can be affected by factors other than kidney function, and serum osmolality reflects the concentration of solutes in the blood, not specifically kidney function.
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