Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a critical nursing action when managing a patient with a chest tube?

• A. Keep the chest tube clamped at all times.
• B. Ensure the chest tube is connected to a closed drainage system.
• C. Empty the chest tube drainage system every 2 hours.
• D. Disconnect the chest tube when the patient is ambulating.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Ensure the chest tube is connected to a closed drainage system." This is a critical nursing action when managing a patient with a chest tube because it is essential for proper drainage and to prevent complications such as air leaks or infections. Option A is incorrect because keeping the chest tube clamped at all times would prevent proper drainage and could lead to complications. Option C is incorrect as emptying the chest tube drainage system should be done based on assessment findings rather than a fixed time interval. Option D is incorrect because disconnecting the chest tube when the patient is ambulating can lead to complications like a pneumothorax.

2. What is the recommended procedure for a healthcare professional to follow when applying sterile gloves?

• A. Use non-sterile gloves first, followed by sterile gloves.
• B. Put on sterile gloves, then gown.
• C. Apply gloves after donning a mask.
• D. Apply gloves before touching any sterile equipment.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct procedure for applying sterile gloves is to do so before touching any sterile equipment or surfaces. This helps maintain the sterility of the gloves. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they suggest incorrect sequences that may compromise the sterility of the gloves. Using non-sterile gloves first can introduce contamination, putting on gloves before a gown can lead to contamination of the gloves during gowning, and applying gloves after donning a mask can risk contamination of the gloves from the mask.

3. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has heart failure and is prescribed enalapril. The provider should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Question: When a client with heart failure is prescribed enalapril, monitoring for hyperkalemia is essential. Enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that can lead to an increase in potassium levels in the blood. This adverse effect can be serious and potentially life-threatening. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because enalapril does not typically cause hypertension, hypokalemia, or hyperglycemia as adverse effects. It's essential for healthcare providers to be vigilant in monitoring potassium levels when clients are on ACE inhibitors like enalapril.

4. A healthcare provider is providing teaching for a patient with a prescription for oral metronidazole, what is the priority teaching point?

• A. Report headaches
• B. Report a rash
• C. Avoid sunlight
• D. Take with meals

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Report a rash.' Metronidazole can cause severe adverse reactions like Stevens-Johnson syndrome, a life-threatening rash. It is crucial to educate the patient to report any rash immediately to prevent serious complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because while they may be relevant to consider during metronidazole therapy, they are not the priority teaching point. Headaches can occur but are not as serious as a rash; avoiding sunlight is more related to doxycycline, not metronidazole; and taking with meals is a general instruction for some medications but not the priority teaching point for metronidazole.

5. A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory report of a client who is receiving heparin therapy for a deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following lab values indicates a therapeutic response to the therapy?

• A. PT of 12 seconds
• B. aPTT of 70 seconds
• C. Platelets of 150,000/mm3
• D. INR of 1.5

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An aPTT of 70 seconds is within the therapeutic range for a client receiving heparin therapy. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most sensitive test to monitor heparin therapy. A therapeutic aPTT range for a client receiving heparin is usually 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value. Choices A, C, and D are not indicators of a therapeutic response to heparin therapy. PT measures the extrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not specific to monitoring heparin therapy. Platelet count is important to monitor for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, but it does not indicate the therapeutic response to heparin therapy. INR is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin therapy.

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