ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A
1. A patient with a history of asthma is admitted with shortness of breath. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Administer a bronchodilator as prescribed.
- B. Encourage the patient to use an incentive spirometer.
- C. Place the patient in a high Fowler's position.
- D. Monitor the patient's oxygen saturation closely.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer a bronchodilator as prescribed. This intervention is the priority for a patient with asthma experiencing shortness of breath as it helps relax the airways, making breathing easier. Encouraging the use of an incentive spirometer (Choice B) is beneficial for lung expansion but not the priority in this acute situation. Placing the patient in a high Fowler's position (Choice C) can also help with breathing but is not as immediate as administering a bronchodilator. While monitoring the patient's oxygen saturation closely (Choice D) is important, the immediate action to address the breathing difficulty is administering a bronchodilator.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a blood transfusion. Which of the following findings indicates the client might be experiencing an acute hemolytic reaction?
- A. Low back pain
- B. Distended neck veins
- C. Chills and fever
- D. Headache
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Chills and fever are classic signs of an acute hemolytic reaction, where the body is reacting to the transfused blood. This reaction can be life-threatening and requires immediate intervention. Low back pain, distended neck veins, and headache are not typical signs of an acute hemolytic reaction. Low back pain may be associated with kidney issues, distended neck veins with fluid overload or heart failure, and headache with various causes such as stress, dehydration, or migraines.
3. How should the nurse manage the client's pain if a client with a history of substance abuse is requesting pain medication?
- A. Administer the medication as requested
- B. Assess the patient's pain level first
- C. Administer a placebo to the client
- D. Refuse to give any medication to the client
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client with a history of substance abuse requests pain medication, the nurse should first assess the patient's pain level. It is important to determine the nature and intensity of the pain before administering any medication to ensure appropriate pain management. Administering medication without assessing the pain level can lead to unnecessary drug administration or inadequate pain relief. Administering a placebo would be unethical and ineffective. Refusing to give any medication without proper assessment can compromise the client's comfort and recovery. Therefore, the correct approach is to assess the patient's pain level first before deciding on the most suitable pain management intervention.
4. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for digoxin. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor and report to the provider?
- A. Increased appetite
- B. Rash on the face
- C. Yellow-tinged vision
- D. Weight gain
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Yellow-tinged vision.' Yellow-tinged vision is a characteristic sign of digoxin toxicity, indicating an overdose of the medication. This visual disturbance is a critical adverse effect that should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent serious complications.\n\nChoice A, 'Increased appetite,' is not typically associated with digoxin use and is not a common adverse effect.\n\nChoice B, 'Rash on the face,' is also not a common adverse effect of digoxin. Skin rash is not a typical manifestation of digoxin toxicity.\n\nChoice D, 'Weight gain,' is not a common adverse effect of digoxin. Weight gain is not a typical symptom of digoxin toxicity and is unlikely to be related to the medication.
5. A healthcare professional is caring for a client with impaired mobility. Which of the following support devices should the healthcare professional plan to use to prevent the client from developing plantar flexion contractures?
- A. Sheepskin heel pad
- B. Footboard
- C. Trochanter roll
- D. Abduction pillow
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A footboard is the correct choice to prevent plantar flexion contractures by maintaining proper alignment of the feet. Plantar flexion contractures involve the foot pointing downward, and a footboard helps keep the foot in a neutral position. Choice A, the sheepskin heel pad, is used for pressure ulcer prevention and comfort but does not specifically address plantar flexion contractures. Choice C, the trochanter roll, is used for hip positioning, not foot alignment. Choice D, the abduction pillow, is used to maintain proper positioning of the legs but does not directly address plantar flexion contractures.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access