ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A
1. A patient with a history of asthma is admitted with shortness of breath. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Administer a bronchodilator as prescribed.
- B. Encourage the patient to use an incentive spirometer.
- C. Place the patient in a high Fowler's position.
- D. Monitor the patient's oxygen saturation closely.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer a bronchodilator as prescribed. This intervention is the priority for a patient with asthma experiencing shortness of breath as it helps relax the airways, making breathing easier. Encouraging the use of an incentive spirometer (Choice B) is beneficial for lung expansion but not the priority in this acute situation. Placing the patient in a high Fowler's position (Choice C) can also help with breathing but is not as immediate as administering a bronchodilator. While monitoring the patient's oxygen saturation closely (Choice D) is important, the immediate action to address the breathing difficulty is administering a bronchodilator.
2. The nurse is caring for a patient with an incision. Which actions will best indicate an understanding of medical and surgical asepsis for a sterile dressing change?
- A. Donning sterile gown and gloves to remove the wound dressing
- B. Utilizing clean gloves to remove the dressing and clean supplies for the new dressing
- C. Utilizing clean gloves to remove the dressing and sterile supplies for the new dressing
- D. Donning clean goggles, gown, and gloves to dress the wound
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer. When performing a sterile dressing change, it is essential to use clean gloves to remove soiled dressings and sterile gloves and supplies for applying the new dressing. This helps maintain aseptic technique and reduce the risk of introducing pathogens to the wound. Choices A, B, and D involve incorrect use of sterile and clean supplies, which can compromise the sterility of the procedure and increase the risk of infection.
3. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for cimetidine. Which of the following laboratory findings should the healthcare provider identify as the priority to report to the provider?
- A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
- B. WBC count 9,000/mm3
- C. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 50 units/L
- D. Fasting glucose 105 mg/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An elevated AST level is indicative of liver damage, which is the priority finding to report to the provider when administering cimetidine. Elevated liver enzymes can be a sign of liver toxicity or damage. Monitoring liver function is crucial when using cimetidine, as it can sometimes lead to hepatotoxicity. The other laboratory findings are within normal ranges and not directly associated with cimetidine administration.
4. The nurse notes that a healthcare provider has prescribed a higher than normal dose of medication. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Administer the prescribed dose
- B. Ask another nurse to verify the dose
- C. Administer half of the dose
- D. Contact the healthcare provider to clarify the prescription
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a healthcare provider prescribes a dose that is higher than normal, it is crucial for the nurse to contact the provider to clarify the prescription. Administering the prescribed dose without clarification can lead to potential harm to the patient due to the elevated dosage. Asking another nurse to verify the dose may not provide the necessary clarification from the prescriber. Administering only half of the prescribed dose without consulting the healthcare provider is not the appropriate action, as the full rationale behind the higher dose needs to be understood before any administration.
5. A nurse is caring for a female client who has osteoporosis and a new prescription for raloxifene. What should the nurse assess prior to initiating therapy?
- A. Pregnancy status
- B. Bone density
- C. Calcium levels
- D. Blood pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pregnancy status. Raloxifene is a pregnancy category X drug, which means it can cause serious birth defects. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to assess the client's pregnancy status before initiating therapy. Choice B, bone density, while important in osteoporosis management, is not a specific concern related to initiating raloxifene therapy. Choice C, calcium levels, and choice D, blood pressure, are not directly related to the initiation of raloxifene therapy in a female client with osteoporosis.
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