Nursing Elites

1. A patient with a history of asthma is admitted with shortness of breath. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Administer a bronchodilator as prescribed.
• B. Encourage the patient to use an incentive spirometer.
• C. Place the patient in a high Fowler's position.
• D. Monitor the patient's oxygen saturation closely.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer a bronchodilator as prescribed. This intervention is the priority for a patient with asthma experiencing shortness of breath as it helps relax the airways, making breathing easier. Encouraging the use of an incentive spirometer (Choice B) is beneficial for lung expansion but not the priority in this acute situation. Placing the patient in a high Fowler's position (Choice C) can also help with breathing but is not as immediate as administering a bronchodilator. While monitoring the patient's oxygen saturation closely (Choice D) is important, the immediate action to address the breathing difficulty is administering a bronchodilator.

2. A healthcare provider writes a medication order that seems excessively high for the patient's condition. What is the nurse's first step?

• A. Administer the medication immediately.
• B. Hold the medication and consult the provider.
• C. Reduce the dose without consulting the provider.
• D. Administer the medication after double-checking with another nurse.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first step for the nurse when encountering a medication order that appears excessively high for the patient's condition is to hold the medication and consult the provider. Administering the medication immediately (Choice A) without clarification could pose a risk to the patient's safety. Reducing the dose without consulting the provider (Choice C) is not recommended as it may lead to suboptimal treatment. Administering the medication after double-checking with another nurse (Choice D) is not sufficient; consulting the provider directly is crucial to ensure the accuracy and safety of the medication order.

3. A nurse sees a healthcare provider administer an incorrect medication dose but does not report the error. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Ignore the situation and continue with patient care.
• B. Report the error to the nurse manager immediately.
• C. Speak to the healthcare provider directly about the error.
• D. File an anonymous report to avoid conflict.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a nurse witnesses a healthcare provider administering an incorrect medication dose, the first step should be to report the error to the nurse manager immediately. Reporting medication errors is crucial for patient safety as it allows prompt intervention to prevent harm. Choice A is incorrect as ignoring the situation can jeopardize patient safety. Choice C, while addressing the error directly, may not ensure proper documentation and follow-up. Choice D, filing an anonymous report, is not as effective as directly informing the nurse manager who can take appropriate action and follow-up on the incident.

4. A healthcare professional is caring for a client with impaired mobility. Which of the following support devices should the healthcare professional plan to use to prevent the client from developing plantar flexion contractures?

• A. Sheepskin heel pad
• B. Footboard
• C. Trochanter roll
• D. Abduction pillow

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A footboard is the correct choice to prevent plantar flexion contractures by maintaining proper alignment of the feet. Plantar flexion contractures involve the foot pointing downward, and a footboard helps keep the foot in a neutral position. Choice A, the sheepskin heel pad, is used for pressure ulcer prevention and comfort but does not specifically address plantar flexion contractures. Choice C, the trochanter roll, is used for hip positioning, not foot alignment. Choice D, the abduction pillow, is used to maintain proper positioning of the legs but does not directly address plantar flexion contractures.

5. What is the primary focus of secondary prevention in community mental health care?

• A. Teaching stress-reduction techniques
• B. Early detection of mental illness
• C. Leading support groups for clients with substance use disorder
• D. Rehabilitation and prevention of further issues

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Early detection of mental illness. Secondary prevention in community mental health care focuses on identifying mental health issues at an early stage to provide timely interventions. Choice A, teaching stress-reduction techniques, is more aligned with primary prevention aimed at preventing the onset of mental health problems. Choice C, leading support groups for clients with substance use disorder, pertains more to providing specific interventions for individuals with substance use issues rather than the general focus of secondary prevention. Choice D, rehabilitation and prevention of further issues, is more related to tertiary prevention, which involves addressing existing mental health conditions and preventing complications or recurrence.

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