ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B
1. A client with tuberculosis is about to start combination drug therapy. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer? (SATA)
- A. Acyclovir
- B. Pyrazinamide
- C. Isoniazid
- D. Rifampin
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pyrazinamide. In the treatment of tuberculosis, a combination drug therapy is usually employed. Pyrazinamide and rifampin are two key drugs used in this regimen. Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used for herpes infections, not for tuberculosis. Isoniazid is another medication used in tuberculosis treatment, but in this case, the question asked for medications to administer, and the correct choices should be those commonly used in tuberculosis combination therapy.
2. A client has a new prescription for clopidogrel. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with food
- B. Take this medication three times daily
- C. You might have to stop taking this medication 5 days before any planned surgeries
- D. Expect to have black-colored stools while taking this medication
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. When instructing a client who is prescribed clopidogrel, the nurse should include information about stopping the medication 5 days before any planned surgeries to reduce the risk of bleeding. This is crucial to prevent excessive bleeding during surgical procedures. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking the medication with food, the frequency of administration, and the possibility of black-colored stools are not specific instructions related to clopidogrel use.
3. A patient with chronic kidney disease has been prescribed a low-protein diet. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Encourage the patient to eat small, frequent meals.
- B. Monitor the patient's intake and output.
- C. Educate the patient on the benefits of a low-protein diet.
- D. Monitor the patient's protein intake closely.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the patient's protein intake closely. In patients with chronic kidney disease on a low-protein diet, monitoring protein intake is crucial to prevent complications such as malnutrition or inadequate nutrient intake. Encouraging small, frequent meals (Choice A) can be beneficial but is not the priority over monitoring protein intake. Monitoring intake and output (Choice B) is important but does not directly address the specific focus on protein intake. Educating the patient on the benefits of a low-protein diet (Choice C) is essential but not as immediate as monitoring the actual protein intake.
4. A client reports pain and swelling at the IV site. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Flush the IV line and continue the infusion.
- B. Stop the infusion and notify the healthcare provider.
- C. Increase the IV infusion rate to reduce discomfort.
- D. Apply a warm compress to the IV site and continue monitoring.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Stop the infusion and notify the healthcare provider. Pain and swelling at an IV site can indicate infiltration or infection, which are serious complications. Stopping the infusion helps prevent further harm to the client, and notifying the healthcare provider promptly allows for appropriate assessment and intervention. Choice A is incorrect because flushing the IV line and continuing the infusion could exacerbate the issue. Choice C is incorrect as increasing the IV infusion rate is not the appropriate action for pain and swelling at the site. Choice D is incorrect because applying a warm compress may not address the underlying issue of infiltration or infection; it's crucial to stop the infusion and seek further guidance.
5. A nurse is assessing a client following a head injury and a brief loss of consciousness. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 12
- B. Edematous bruise on the forehead
- C. Small drops of clear fluid in the left ear
- D. Pupils are 4 mm and reactive to light
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clear fluid draining from the ear may indicate a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak, which is a serious complication following a head injury. Reporting this finding is crucial as it may require immediate medical intervention to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are not as concerning as a CSF leak. A GCS score of 12 is relatively high, indicating a mild level of consciousness alteration. An edematous bruise on the forehead is a common physical finding after a head injury. Pupils that are 4 mm and reactive to light suggest normal pupillary function.
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