ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet
1. How should fluid balance be assessed in a patient receiving diuretics?
- A. Monitor daily weight
- B. Monitor intake and output
- C. Check for edema
- D. Monitor blood pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Monitoring daily weight is the most accurate method to assess fluid balance in patients receiving diuretics. Changes in weight reflect changes in fluid balance, making it a sensitive indicator. Monitoring intake and output (choice B) is important but may not provide a complete picture of overall fluid balance. Checking for edema (choice C) is a late sign of fluid imbalance and may not be sensitive enough to detect subtle changes. Monitoring blood pressure (choice D) is relevant but may not directly reflect fluid balance as it can be influenced by various other factors.
2. While caring for a client receiving a blood transfusion who reports chills, which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Stop the transfusion.
- B. Administer acetaminophen as prescribed.
- C. Notify the provider.
- D. Check the client's blood pressure.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first when a client reports chills during a blood transfusion is to stop the transfusion. Chills can indicate a transfusion reaction, which is a potentially serious situation. Stopping the transfusion immediately is crucial to prevent further complications. Administering acetaminophen or checking the client's blood pressure can come after ensuring the safety of the client by stopping the transfusion. Notifying the provider is important, but the immediate priority is to stop the transfusion.
3. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for prednisone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
- B. Take this medication in the evening.
- C. You should avoid taking this medication with dairy products.
- D. You should monitor for signs of infection while taking this medication.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: "You should monitor for signs of infection while taking this medication." When a client is prescribed prednisone, it is essential to monitor for signs of infection due to the immunosuppressive effects of corticosteroids. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because prednisone does not need to be taken on an empty stomach, at a specific time of day, or avoided with dairy products.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who has deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the left lower extremity. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Pain in the right lower extremity
- B. Cold skin in the affected extremity
- C. Redness and warmth in the affected extremity
- D. Shiny skin on the affected extremity
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Redness and warmth are classic signs of inflammation, which are commonly seen in clients with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). These findings indicate increased blood flow and temperature in the affected area. Pain in the right lower extremity (Choice A) is not expected in a client with DVT affecting the left lower extremity. Cold skin (Choice B) is not a typical finding in DVT; instead, warmth is more indicative of inflammation. Shiny skin (Choice D) is not a common characteristic of DVT; rather, the skin may appear red, swollen, and warm due to the inflammatory process.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is 12 hr postpartum and has a third-degree perineal laceration. The client reports not having a bowel movement for 4 days. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer?
- A. Bisacodyl 10 mg rectal suppository.
- B. Magnesium hydroxide 30 ml PO.
- C. Famotidine 20 mg PO.
- D. Loperamide 4 mg PO.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should administer Bisacodyl 10 mg rectal suppository. Bisacodyl is a stimulant laxative that promotes bowel movement, which is appropriate for a postpartum client experiencing constipation. Magnesium hydroxide (choice B) is an antacid and not indicated for constipation. Famotidine (choice C) is an H2 receptor antagonist used for reducing stomach acid production, not for constipation. Loperamide (choice D) is an antidiarrheal agent and would worsen constipation in this case.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access