ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B
1. How does a healthcare professional assess a patient's fluid balance, and what signs indicate fluid overload?
- A. Checking lung sounds for crackles
- B. Checking for signs of orthopnea
- C. Monitoring intake and output, and checking for edema
- D. Measuring daily weight
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is monitoring intake and output and checking for edema. Monitoring intake and output provides information about fluid balance in the body, while checking for edema helps assess for fluid overload. Lung sounds and signs of orthopnea are more indicative of respiratory issues rather than fluid balance. Daily weight measurement is useful to assess fluid status, but it alone may not provide a comprehensive evaluation of fluid balance.
2. Which of the following foods is a good source of protein?
- A. Chicken
- B. Tofu
- C. Cheddar cheese
- D. Almonds
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Cheddar cheese is indeed a good source of protein, providing a significant amount per serving. While chicken and tofu are also high in protein, cheddar cheese can be a beneficial source, especially for individuals looking for non-meat options. Almonds, while nutritious, are not as high in protein compared to the other options listed.
3. A nurse manager is asked to select clients for early discharge from the unit following a mass casualty event. Which of the following clients should the nurse manager recommend?
- A. A client awaiting a screening colonoscopy later that day
- B. A client whose discharge was cancelled the prior day because they developed respiratory distress
- C. A client who is 6 hr postoperative following an open cholecystectomy
- D. A client who is prescribed gastric lavage treatments to treat acute aspirin toxicity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse manager should recommend the client awaiting a screening colonoscopy later that day for early discharge following a mass casualty event. This client is stable and not in immediate need of hospital care. Choices B, C, and D involve clients who require ongoing monitoring and care due to recent developments or treatments, making them unsuitable for early discharge during a mass casualty event.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a blood transfusion. Which of the following findings indicates the client might be experiencing an acute hemolytic reaction?
- A. Low back pain
- B. Distended neck veins
- C. Chills and fever
- D. Headache
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Chills and fever are classic signs of an acute hemolytic reaction, where the body is reacting to the transfused blood. This reaction can be life-threatening and requires immediate intervention. Low back pain, distended neck veins, and headache are not typical signs of an acute hemolytic reaction. Low back pain may be associated with kidney issues, distended neck veins with fluid overload or heart failure, and headache with various causes such as stress, dehydration, or migraines.
5. How should the nurse manage the client's pain if a client with a history of substance abuse is requesting pain medication?
- A. Administer the medication as requested
- B. Assess the patient's pain level first
- C. Administer a placebo to the client
- D. Refuse to give any medication to the client
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client with a history of substance abuse requests pain medication, the nurse should first assess the patient's pain level. It is important to determine the nature and intensity of the pain before administering any medication to ensure appropriate pain management. Administering medication without assessing the pain level can lead to unnecessary drug administration or inadequate pain relief. Administering a placebo would be unethical and ineffective. Refusing to give any medication without proper assessment can compromise the client's comfort and recovery. Therefore, the correct approach is to assess the patient's pain level first before deciding on the most suitable pain management intervention.
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