Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client following a head injury and a brief loss of consciousness. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 12
• B. Edematous bruise on the forehead
• C. Small drops of clear fluid in the left ear
• D. Pupils are 4 mm and reactive to light

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clear fluid draining from the ear may indicate a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak, which is a serious complication following a head injury. Reporting this finding is crucial as it may require immediate medical intervention to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are not as concerning as a CSF leak. A GCS score of 12 is relatively high, indicating a mild level of consciousness alteration. An edematous bruise on the forehead is a common physical finding after a head injury. Pupils that are 4 mm and reactive to light suggest normal pupillary function.

2. After unsuccessful alternatives, a patient requires restraints. The nurse is reviewing the orders. Which findings indicate to the nurse the order is legal and appropriate for safe care?

• A. The health care provider writes the type and location of the restraint.
• B. The health care provider renews orders for restraints every 24 hours.
• C. The health care provider performs a face-to-face assessment prior to the order.
• D. The health care provider orders restraints PRN (as needed).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the context of restraining a patient, it is crucial for the health care provider to specify the type and location of the restraint in the order to ensure the safety and well-being of the patient. This information helps guide the nursing staff in the safe application of restraints. Renewing orders every 24 hours ensures that the need for restraints is continually assessed, promoting patient safety. Performing a face-to-face assessment before ordering restraints allows for a thorough evaluation of the patient's condition and the necessity of using restraints. Ordering restraints PRN (as needed) is not appropriate for safe care as it lacks specificity and may lead to inconsistent application and monitoring.

3. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being cared for by a nurse. What is the most appropriate action to improve the patient's oxygenation?

• A. Encourage the patient to use incentive spirometry.
• B. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula as prescribed.
• C. Assist the patient with coughing and deep breathing exercises.
• D. Position the patient in a high Fowler's position.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering oxygen via nasal cannula as prescribed is the most appropriate action to improve the patient's oxygenation in COPD. Oxygen therapy helps maintain adequate oxygen levels in the blood, which is crucial for managing COPD. Encouraging the use of incentive spirometry, assisting with coughing and deep breathing exercises, and positioning the patient in high Fowler's position are all beneficial interventions, but administering oxygen is the priority for immediate oxygenation support in COPD.

4. A nurse is assigned to care for a client with unstable blood pressure. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Monitor the client every two hours.
• B. Continuously monitor the client's vital signs.
• C. Wait for the healthcare provider to provide instructions.
• D. Ask the healthcare provider for specific instructions.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the case of a client with unstable blood pressure, the priority action for the nurse is to continuously monitor the client's vital signs. This allows for immediate detection of any fluctuations in blood pressure and timely intervention if necessary. Choice A, monitoring every two hours, may not provide real-time information needed for prompt intervention. Choices C and D suggest waiting for instructions from the healthcare provider, which could cause a delay in addressing the unstable blood pressure, potentially leading to adverse outcomes. Therefore, the most appropriate initial action is to continuously monitor the client's vital signs.

5. How should a healthcare professional position a patient to reduce the risk of pressure ulcers?

• A. Position the patient in the supine position for long periods.
• B. Use pillows to support bony prominences.
• C. Turn the patient every 4 hours.
• D. Place the patient on an alternating pressure mattress.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correctly positioning a patient to reduce the risk of pressure ulcers involves using pillows to support bony prominences. This helps to relieve pressure from vulnerable areas and prevent the development of pressure ulcers. Choice A is incorrect because keeping a patient in the supine position for extended periods can increase the risk of pressure ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as turning the patient every 2 hours, rather than every 4 hours, is recommended to prevent pressure ulcers. Choice D is not the best option mentioned for positioning a patient to reduce pressure ulcer risk; although alternating pressure mattresses can be beneficial, using pillows for support is a more direct and commonly used method.

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