a nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who received his medications 1 hour ago the pt reports chest pain this can be an ae of what med
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client who received their medications 1 hour ago. The client reports chest pain. This can be an adverse effect of what medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Albuterol. Albuterol can cause chest pain as a side effect due to its beta-agonist effects, which can lead to chest discomfort. Digoxin (choice A) is not typically associated with causing chest pain. Lisinopril (choice C) and Metoprolol (choice D) are not known to commonly cause chest pain as a side effect.

2. A healthcare professional is reviewing the lab results of a client with liver disease. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevated ammonia levels in a client with liver disease can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, requiring immediate intervention. Ammonia is a neurotoxin that can cause cognitive impairment and altered mental status. Elevated bilirubin levels (Choice A) are common in liver disease but do not require immediate intervention. Low albumin levels (Choice B) and low hemoglobin levels (Choice D) are also common in liver disease but do not pose an immediate threat compared to elevated ammonia levels.

3. What should be done to manage a patient with contact precautions?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When managing a patient with contact precautions, it is essential to dedicate all patient care equipment to that specific patient. This practice helps minimize the risk of spreading infections to other patients. Choice A, wearing protective gear for all patient interactions, is a general precaution but not specific to managing a patient with contact precautions. Choice B, ensuring visitors wear protective equipment, is important for infection control but not directly related to managing the patient with contact precautions. Choice D, disinfecting shared equipment before use, is a good practice for infection control in general but does not address the specific needs of a patient under contact precautions.

4. What is the primary goal when caring for a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to maintain the patient's oxygen saturation above 90% when caring for a patient with COPD. In COPD, impaired gas exchange leads to decreased oxygen levels in the blood. By ensuring oxygen saturation remains above 90%, healthcare providers can prevent hypoxia and its complications. Administering bronchodilators as prescribed (Choice B) is an important intervention in managing COPD symptoms, but it is not the primary goal. Improving the patient's nutritional intake (Choice C) and encouraging the patient to limit physical activity (Choice D) are also essential aspects of COPD management, but they are not the primary goal when caring for a patient with this condition.

5. A nurse caring for a client under airborne precautions notes that the client is scheduled for a nuclear scan. What is the appropriate action for the nurse to take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse is to place a surgical mask on the client for transport and for contact with other individuals when a patient under airborne precautions requires movement. This helps prevent the spread of infectious agents. Planning to have the nuclear scan at the bedside (Choice A) may not be feasible or appropriate. Calling the nuclear medicine department to delay the test (Choice B) may inconvenience the client and disrupt the scheduled procedure. Asking technicians in the nuclear scan department to wear masks (Choice C) does not provide adequate protection for others who may come into contact with the client outside the department.

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