Nursing Elites

1. Four clients are receiving tyrosine kinase inhibitors (TKIs). Which of these four clients would the nurse assess first?

• A. Dry, itchy, peeling skin.
• B. Serum calcium of 9.2 mg/dL (2.3 mmol/L).
• C. Serum potassium of 2.8 mEq/L (2.8 mmol/L).
• D. Weight gain of 0.5 lb (1.1 kg) in 1 day.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L is critically low and requires immediate intervention.

2. Nurse Kent is teaching a male client to perform monthly testicular self-examinations. Which of the following points would be appropriate to make?

• A. Testicular cancer is a highly curable type of cancer
• B. Testicular cancer is very difficult to diagnose.
• C. Testicular cancer is the number one cause of cancer deaths in males.
• D. Testicular cancer is more common in older men.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Testicular cancer is indeed highly treatable and curable, particularly when detected early through regular self-examinations. The survival rates for testicular cancer are very high, with many cases being treatable even if the cancer has spread, thanks to effective treatment options such as surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation therapy. Educating clients on the importance of early detection through monthly testicular self-examinations can empower them to recognize any changes early, increasing the likelihood of successful treatment.

3. A client is admitted to the hospital with a suspected diagnosis of Hodgkin’s disease. Which assessment finding would the nurse expect to note specifically in the client?

• A. Fatigue
• B. Weakness
• C. Weight gain
• D. Enlarged lymph nodes

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hodgkin’s disease (Hodgkin’s lymphoma) is a type of cancer that originates in the lymphatic system, particularly affecting the lymph nodes. A hallmark sign of Hodgkin’s disease is the painless enlargement of lymph nodes, often in the neck, armpit, or groin. These enlarged lymph nodes are typically firm and rubbery to the touch. This is one of the most distinctive and common early signs that healthcare providers look for when diagnosing the disease.

4. Following an extensive diagnostic workup, an older adult patient has been diagnosed with a secondary myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). What assessment question most directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem?

• A. Were you ever exposed to toxic chemicals in any of the jobs that you held?
• B. When you were younger, did you tend to have recurrent infections of any kind?
• C. Have your parents or siblings had any disease like this?
• D. Would you say that you've had a lot of sun exposure in your lifetime?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Secondary MDS can occur at any age and results from prior toxic exposure to chemicals, including chemotherapeutic medications. Asking about exposure to toxic chemicals in previous jobs directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to the etiology of secondary MDS. Recurrent infections (Choice B) are not a known cause of MDS. Family history (Choice C) is more pertinent to primary MDS, which has a genetic component, while sun exposure (Choice D) is not associated with the etiology of MDS.

5. A new nurse has been assigned a client who is in the hospital to receive iodine-131 treatment. Which action by the nurse is best?

• A. Ensure the client is placed in protective isolation.
• B. Have pregnant visitors stay 6 feet from the client.
• C. No special action is necessary to care for this client.
• D. Read the policy on handling radioactive excreta.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Handling radioactive excreta requires special precautions; the nurse must be familiar with the facility's policies.

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