ATI RN
Oncology Test Bank
1. A nurse is caring for a patient who is being treated for leukemia in the hospital. The patient was able to maintain her nutritional status for the first few weeks following her diagnosis but is now exhibiting early signs and symptoms of malnutrition. In collaboration with the dietitian, what intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Arrange for total parenteral nutrition (TPN).
- B. Facilitate placement of a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube.
- C. Provide the patient with several small, soft-textured meals each day.
- D. Assign responsibility for the patient's nutrition to the patient's friends and family.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: For patients experiencing difficulties with oral intake, the provision of small, easily chewed meals may be beneficial. Option A (TPN) and B (PEG tube placement) are more invasive interventions and should be considered if non-oral routes are necessary. Option D is not appropriate as the primary responsibility for a patient's nutrition should lie with healthcare professionals to ensure proper management and monitoring.
2. Following an extensive diagnostic workup, an older adult patient has been diagnosed with a secondary myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). What assessment question most directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem?
- A. Were you ever exposed to toxic chemicals in any of the jobs that you held?
- B. When you were younger, did you tend to have recurrent infections of any kind?
- C. Have your parents or siblings had any disease like this?
- D. Would you say that you've had a lot of sun exposure in your lifetime?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Secondary MDS can occur at any age and results from prior toxic exposure to chemicals, including chemotherapeutic medications. Asking about exposure to toxic chemicals in previous jobs directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to the etiology of secondary MDS. Recurrent infections (Choice B) are not a known cause of MDS. Family history (Choice C) is more pertinent to primary MDS, which has a genetic component, while sun exposure (Choice D) is not associated with the etiology of MDS.
3. A client is receiving rituximab and asks how it works. What response by the nurse is best?
- A. It causes rapid lysis of the cancer cell membranes.
- B. It destroys the enzymes needed to create cancer cells.
- C. It prevents the start of cell division in the cancer cells.
- D. It sensitizes certain cancer cells to chemotherapy.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Rituximab is a monoclonal antibody that targets CD20, a protein found on the surface of certain B-cells, including some cancerous B-cells, such as in non-Hodgkin's lymphoma and chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL). Rituximab works by binding to the CD20 protein, which leads to the destruction of the cancerous B-cells through various mechanisms, including preventing the initiation of cell division. By blocking the division process, rituximab helps slow the growth and proliferation of cancer cells, allowing the immune system and additional treatments to clear them more effectively.
4. A 35-year-old male is admitted to the hospital complaining of severe headaches, vomiting, and testicular pain. His blood work shows reduced numbers of platelets, leukocytes, and erythrocytes, with a high proportion of immature cells. The nurse caring for this patient suspects a diagnosis of what?
- A. AML
- B. CML
- C. MDS
- D. ALL
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia (ALL) is a type of cancer where immature lymphocytes (a type of white blood cell) proliferate uncontrollably in the bone marrow. This leads to a reduction in the production of platelets, leukocytes, and erythrocytes, causing symptoms such as fatigue, anemia, bleeding tendencies, and increased susceptibility to infection. In ALL, leukemic cell infiltration into other organs is common, which can manifest as severe headaches (due to central nervous system involvement), vomiting, and testicular pain (due to infiltration of leukemic cells into the testes). These are hallmark signs of ALL, especially in younger patients.
5. In caring for a patient with a diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia (AML) receiving induction therapy on the oncology unit, what nursing action should be prioritized in the patient's care plan?
- A. Protective isolation and vigilant use of standard precautions
- B. Provision of a high-calorie, low-texture diet and appropriate oral hygiene
- C. Including the family in planning the patient's activities of daily living
- D. Monitoring and treating the patient's pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Protective isolation and vigilant use of standard precautions. Induction therapy for acute myeloid leukemia (AML) can lead to neutropenia, significantly increasing the risk of infections. Therefore, the priority is to protect the patient from potential pathogens by implementing protective isolation measures and adhering to strict standard precautions. This action is crucial for the patient's survival. Choice B is incorrect as nutritional support and oral hygiene are important but not the priority in this situation. Choice C, involving the family in planning activities, is a valuable aspect of care but not the priority during induction therapy. Choice D, monitoring and treating pain, is essential but ensuring protection against infection takes precedence due to the high risk of neutropenia.
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