Nursing Elites

1. A nurse knows that all of the following are managements of breast cancer except:

• A. Administer chemotherapy as ordered
• B. Let the patient lie down with 1-2 pillows
• C. Give patient Tamoxifen as ordered
• D. Let the patient elevate affected arm post op

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the management of breast cancer, particularly after procedures such as a mastectomy, it is important to position the patient in a way that promotes healing and comfort. However, lying down with 1-2 pillows is not a standard practice for postoperative care. Instead, patients are often advised to elevate the affected arm to reduce swelling and promote drainage, and they may benefit from sleeping in a more upright position if they are experiencing discomfort. The focus should be on facilitating recovery rather than simply lying down.

2. A patient’s most recent diagnostic imaging has revealed that his lung cancer has metastasized to his bones and liver. What is the most likely mechanism by which the patient’s cancer cells spread?

• A. Hematologic spread
• B. Lymphatic circulation
• C. Invasion
• D. Angiogenesis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the case of lung cancer that has metastasized to the bones and liver, lymphatic circulation is a key mechanism by which cancer cells spread from the primary tumor site to distant organs. Cancer cells can invade nearby lymphatic vessels and travel through the lymphatic system, eventually reaching lymph nodes and spreading to other tissues and organs. This route is significant in the metastasis of many types of cancer, including lung cancer.

3. The healthcare professional working with oncology clients understands that which age-related change increases the older client’s susceptibility to infection during chemotherapy?

• A. Decreased immune function.
• B. Diminished nutritional stores.
• C. Existing cognitive deficits.
• D. Poor physical reserves.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased immune function. Aging leads to a decline in immune function, which increases susceptibility to infections during chemotherapy. This decline is due to changes in the immune system that occur with age. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while they may impact overall health in older clients, they do not directly increase susceptibility to infections during chemotherapy like decreased immune function does.

4. A nurse is caring for a patient who has been diagnosed with leukemia. The nurse's most recent assessment reveals the presence of ecchymoses on the patient's sacral area and petechiae on her forearms. In addition to informing the patient's primary care provider, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Initiate measures to prevent venous thromboembolism (VTE).
• B. Check the patient's most recent platelet level.
• C. Place the patient on protective isolation.
• D. Ambulate the patient to promote circulatory function.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's signs of ecchymoses and petechiae are suggestive of thrombocytopenia, which is a common complication of leukemia. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, leading to abnormal bleeding. Checking the patient's most recent platelet level is crucial to assess the severity of thrombocytopenia and guide further interventions. Initiating measures to prevent venous thromboembolism (VTE) (Choice A) is not directly related to the patient's current signs. Placing the patient on protective isolation (Choice C) is not necessary for ecchymoses and petechiae. Ambulating the patient (Choice D) is not appropriate without addressing the underlying cause of abnormal bleeding.

5. An adult patient has presented to the health clinic with a complaint of a firm, painless cervical lymph node. The patient denies any recent infectious diseases. What is the nurse's most appropriate response to the patient's complaint?

• A. Call 911.
• B. Promptly refer the patient for medical assessment.
• C. Facilitate a radiograph of the patient's neck and have the results forwarded to the patient's primary care provider.
• D. Encourage the patient to track the size of the lymph node and seek care in 1 week.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate response for a patient presenting with a firm, painless cervical lymph node and denying recent infectious diseases is to promptly refer the patient for medical assessment. This is crucial to rule out serious underlying conditions such as malignancy or other concerning causes. Calling 911 is not necessary in this situation as it is not an emergency. Ordering a radiograph may not be the most immediate or appropriate action, as further evaluation by a healthcare provider is needed first. Encouraging the patient to wait and track the lymph node for a week is not advisable when a potential serious condition needs to be ruled out promptly.

Similar Questions