the nurse is caring for a client following radical neck dissection and creation of a tracheostomy which assessment finding would indicate an immediate
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Oncology Test Bank

1. The nurse is caring for a client following radical neck dissection and creation of a tracheostomy. Which assessment finding would indicate an immediate need for intervention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Inspiratory stridor is the correct answer as it suggests airway obstruction, a critical issue requiring immediate intervention. Frequent swallowing (choice A) is a common postoperative finding and does not indicate an immediate need for intervention. The presence of mucous membranes (choice B) is a normal finding and does not require immediate intervention. Bubbling in the water-seal chamber (choice C) of a chest tube drainage system is an expected finding and indicates proper functioning of the system, not an immediate need for intervention.

2. Nurse Jane is providing care for a client with superior vena cava syndrome. Which of the following interventions would be the priority?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to elevate the head of the bed. Elevating the head of the bed can help reduce the pressure on the superior vena cava, improve venous return, and facilitate breathing in clients with superior vena cava syndrome. Administering steroids (Choice B) may be necessary in some cases, but it is not the priority in the immediate care of a client with superior vena cava syndrome. Providing supplemental oxygen (Choice C) may help improve oxygenation but does not directly address the underlying issue of venous congestion. Administering diuretics (Choice D) may be contraindicated as it can further decrease preload and worsen the condition in superior vena cava syndrome.

3. A nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with essential thrombocythemia (ET) who is at risk for thromboembolic events. What nursing intervention is most appropriate for this patient?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering anticoagulant therapy is crucial to prevent thromboembolic events in patients with ET.

4. An oncology patient will begin a course of chemotherapy and radiation therapy for the treatment of bone metastases. What is one means by which malignant disease processes transfer cells from one place to another?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Invading healthy host tissues. Invasion is the process where malignant cells grow into surrounding healthy tissues, allowing the cancer to spread to other parts of the body. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Adhering to primary tumor cells does not involve the transfer of cells to other locations, inducing mutation of cells of another organ is not a mechanism of cell transfer, and phagocytizing healthy cells refers to the process of engulfing and digesting cells, which is not a method of cancer cell transfer.

5. A patient newly diagnosed with cancer is scheduled to begin chemotherapy treatment and the nurse is providing anticipatory guidance about potential adverse effects. When addressing the most common adverse effect, what should the nurse describe?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nausea and vomiting are among the most common and distressing side effects of chemotherapy. Chemotherapy drugs target rapidly dividing cells, including cancer cells, but they also affect healthy cells in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, triggering the release of chemicals that stimulate the brain’s vomiting center. These side effects can occur immediately (acute), be delayed, or even anticipatory, and often require management with antiemetic (anti-nausea) medications to improve the patient’s comfort and quality of life during treatment.

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