Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is instructing the 35 year old client to perform a testicular self-examination. The nurse tells the client:

• A. To examine the testicles while lying down
• B. That the best time for the examination is after a shower
• C. To gently feel the testicle with one finger to feel for a growth
• D. That testicular self-examination should be done at least every 6 months

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best time to perform a testicular self-examination (TSE) is after a warm shower or bath. The heat from the water relaxes the scrotal skin, making it easier to feel any abnormalities, lumps, or changes in the testicles. This relaxation allows for a more thorough and accurate examination.

2. The nurse is caring for a patient who is to begin receiving external radiation for a malignant tumor of the neck. While providing patient education, what potential adverse effects should the nurse discuss with the patient?

• A. Impaired nutritional status
• B. Cognitive changes
• C. Diarrhea
• D. Alopecia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Impaired nutritional status is a potential adverse effect of radiotherapy to the head and neck due to alterations in oral mucosa and taste. While cognitive changes, diarrhea, and alopecia can be side effects of other treatments or conditions, they are not typically associated with external radiation for a malignant tumor of the neck. Therefore, the nurse should primarily focus on discussing the risk of impaired nutritional status with the patient.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer filgrastim to a client undergoing chemotherapy. What is the primary purpose of this medication?

• A. Increase white blood cell production.
• B. Reduce the risk of infection.
• C. Enhance red blood cell production.
• D. Control chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Filgrastim is primarily used to increase white blood cell production in clients undergoing chemotherapy.

4. The nurse is caring for a client who is at risk for tumor lysis syndrome. Which laboratory value requires the nurse to intervene?

• A. Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• B. Increased serum calcium
• C. Increased creatinine level
• D. Increased blood glucose level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tumor lysis syndrome (TLS) is a potentially life-threatening condition that occurs when large numbers of cancer cells die rapidly, releasing their contents into the bloodstream. This can overwhelm the kidneys and lead to acute kidney injury. Creatinine is a waste product filtered out of the blood by the kidneys, and an elevated creatinine level is a sign of kidney dysfunction or damage. In TLS, increased creatinine levels indicate that the kidneys are struggling to filter out the excess waste products from cell breakdown, requiring immediate intervention to prevent further complications, such as acute renal failure.

5. A client receiving chemotherapy is experiencing severe nausea and vomiting. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer antiemetics 30 minutes before chemotherapy.
• B. Offer small, frequent meals that are bland and easy to digest.
• C. Encourage the client to rest after meals to reduce nausea.
• D. Instruct the client to use relaxation techniques.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer antiemetics 30 minutes before chemotherapy. Administering antiemetics before chemotherapy is crucial to prevent nausea rather than treating it after it occurs. This proactive approach helps in minimizing the side effects. Choice B, offering small, frequent meals, can be beneficial but is not the first intervention for severe nausea and vomiting. Choice C, encouraging rest after meals, may help but is not the priority when the client is experiencing severe symptoms. Choice D, instructing the client to use relaxation techniques, is not the first-line intervention for severe nausea and vomiting in a client receiving chemotherapy.

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