Nursing Elites

1. What action is specific to hormonal contraceptives and should be taught to this woman?

• A. The cervical mucus is altered to prevent sperm penetration.
• B. The release of follicle-stimulating hormone is increased to block fertility.
• C. The maturation of the endometrial lining is activated by the contraceptive.
• D. The pituitary gland increases the synthesis and release of luteinizing hormone.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action specific to hormonal contraceptives that should be taught to the woman is that they alter cervical mucus to prevent sperm penetration. This mechanism helps in preventing pregnancy by reducing the chances of sperm reaching the egg. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is inaccurate as hormonal contraceptives work by inhibiting ovulation rather than increasing follicle-stimulating hormone release. Choice C is incorrect as hormonal contraceptives do not activate the maturation of the endometrial lining; instead, they modify it to prevent implantation. Choice D is also incorrect as hormonal contraceptives do not stimulate the pituitary gland to increase luteinizing hormone synthesis and release.

2. An imbalance of which of the following hormones could lead to increased calcium levels in the blood?

• A. Parathyroid hormone
• B. Antidiuretic hormone
• C. Calcitonin
• D. Melatonin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Parathyroid hormone (Choice A). Parathyroid hormone plays a key role in regulating calcium levels in the blood. When there is an imbalance in parathyroid hormone secretion, it can lead to increased calcium levels in the blood. Antidiuretic hormone (Choice B) is involved in regulating water balance, not calcium levels. Calcitonin (Choice C) helps lower blood calcium levels and is unlikely to cause an increase. Melatonin (Choice D) regulates sleep-wake cycles and does not have a direct effect on calcium levels in the blood.

3. A patient taking hormonal contraceptives will soon turn 35 years of age. She is moderately obese and has smoked for 15 years. Which of the following is most important?

• A. Begin an exercise regimen.
• B. Begin smoking cessation.
• C. Begin daily aspirin therapy.
• D. Begin taking a loop diuretic to aid weight loss.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important action for a patient taking hormonal contraceptives, who is nearing 35 years of age, moderately obese, and has a history of smoking for 15 years, is to begin smoking cessation. Women over 35, especially smokers, are at an increased risk of blood clots and cardiovascular issues when using hormonal contraceptives. Smoking cessation is crucial to reduce this risk. Beginning an exercise regimen may be beneficial for overall health but is not as critical as stopping smoking in this scenario. Daily aspirin therapy or taking a loop diuretic are not indicated in this situation and may not address the primary risk associated with hormonal contraceptives and smoking.

4. What causes type I diabetes?

• A. Overproduction of insulin from the beta cells of the pancreas
• B. Destruction of the beta cells within the pancreas, resulting in an inability to produce insulin
• C. Loss of insulin receptors on the target cells, resulting in insulin resistance
• D. A pituitary tumor in the brain, resulting in increased antidiuretic hormone production

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Type I diabetes is caused by the destruction of the beta cells in the pancreas, leading to an inability to produce insulin. This results in a lack of insulin, leading to hyperglycemia. Choice A is incorrect as type I diabetes is characterized by a deficiency of insulin production, not overproduction. Choice C describes the pathophysiology of type 2 diabetes, where insulin receptors become less responsive to insulin. Choice D is unrelated to type I diabetes as it describes a pituitary tumor causing increased antidiuretic hormone production.

5. After a generalized seizure, a 27-year-old woman with epilepsy feels tired and falls asleep. This is:

• A. an ominous sign.
• B. normal and termed the postictal period.
• C. a reflection of an underlying brain tumor.
• D. only worrisome if there are focal neurologic deficits after.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer. The postictal period is the phase following a seizure, characterized by symptoms like fatigue, confusion, and sleepiness. It is a normal part of the seizure process and does not necessarily indicate a serious underlying issue. Choice A is incorrect because feeling tired and falling asleep after a seizure is expected and not an ominous sign. Choice C is incorrect as there is no indication in the scenario provided to suggest an underlying brain tumor. Choice D is incorrect because the presence of focal neurologic deficits would indeed be concerning, but the postictal state itself is a common and expected occurrence post-seizure.

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