Nursing Elites

1. A 60-year-old male client with a long history of back pain has had little success with a variety of analgesic regimens that his family physician has prescribed. He has recently been diagnosed with a chronic pain disorder. Which teaching points about chronic pain would his physician most likely emphasize to the client?

• A. Chronic pain is often difficult to treat and requires a multimodal approach.
• B. Chronic pain indicates that an underlying injury has not healed properly.
• C. Chronic pain can be managed with a single long-term medication.
• D. Chronic pain is typically less severe than acute pain but lasts longer.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Chronic pain is often complex and challenging to treat, necessitating a multimodal approach that may include medication, physical therapy, and behavioral therapy. Choice B is incorrect because chronic pain does not always indicate that an underlying injury has not healed properly; it can persist even after the initial injury has healed. Choice C is incorrect as chronic pain management usually involves a combination of treatments rather than relying solely on a single long-term medication. Choice D is incorrect because chronic pain is not necessarily less severe than acute pain; it can vary in intensity and duration depending on the individual and underlying condition.

2. A staff member asks what leukocytosis means. How should the nurse respond? Leukocytosis can be defined as:

• A. A normal leukocyte count
• B. A high leukocyte count
• C. A low leukocyte count
• D. Another term for leukopenia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Leukocytosis refers to an abnormally high leukocyte count. This condition is characterized by an elevated number of white blood cells in the bloodstream. Choice A is incorrect because leukocytosis does not refer to a normal leukocyte count. Choice C is incorrect as leukocytosis is not related to a low leukocyte count. Choice D is incorrect as leukopenia is the opposite of leukocytosis, indicating a low white blood cell count.

3. A 52-year-old male patient is taking finasteride (Proscar) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). What patient teaching should the nurse provide?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Avoid taking NSAIDs while on this medication.
• C. Avoid driving or operating heavy machinery while taking this medication.
• D. Women who are or may become pregnant should not handle crushed or broken tablets.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Finasteride, used for BPH, can be harmful to a developing male fetus. Therefore, women who are or may become pregnant should not handle crushed or broken tablets to avoid potential absorption through the skin. Choice A is incorrect as finasteride can be taken with or without food. Choice B is incorrect because there is no specific interaction between finasteride and NSAIDs mentioned. Choice C is incorrect as finasteride does not typically cause drowsiness or impair mental alertness.

4. A 56-year-old woman has been experiencing memory loss and confusion for the past year. The client is diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease. Which finding is most characteristic of this disease?

• A. Neurofibrillary tangles in the brain
• B. Demyelination of neurons in the brain
• C. Accumulation of beta-amyloid plaques
• D. Formation of Lewy bodies

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Accumulation of beta-amyloid plaques. Alzheimer's disease is characterized by the accumulation of beta-amyloid plaques in the brain. These plaques are formed from the buildup of beta-amyloid protein fragments between nerve cells. Choice A, neurofibrillary tangles, are a hallmark of another neurodegenerative disease called Alzheimer's disease. Choice B, demyelination of neurons, is more characteristic of diseases like multiple sclerosis. Choice D, formation of Lewy bodies, is associated with Lewy body dementia, not Alzheimer's disease.

5. A male patient is being treated with sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction. What condition would contraindicate the use of this medication?

• A. Peptic ulcer disease
• B. History of myocardial infarction
• C. Recent use of antihypertensive medications
• D. Use of nitrates

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Use of nitrates. Sildenafil (Viagra) is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates and sildenafil both cause vasodilation, and the combination can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choice A, peptic ulcer disease, is not a contraindication for sildenafil use. Choice B, a history of myocardial infarction, is not a contraindication unless the patient is also taking nitrates. Choice C, recent use of antihypertensive medications, is not a contraindication but requires caution as the combination can lead to additive effects lowering blood pressure.

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