Nursing Elites

1. A patient’s most recent diagnostic imaging has revealed that his lung cancer has metastasized to his bones and liver. What is the most likely mechanism by which the patient’s cancer cells spread?

• A. Hematologic spread
• B. Lymphatic circulation
• C. Invasion
• D. Angiogenesis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the case of lung cancer that has metastasized to the bones and liver, lymphatic circulation is a key mechanism by which cancer cells spread from the primary tumor site to distant organs. Cancer cells can invade nearby lymphatic vessels and travel through the lymphatic system, eventually reaching lymph nodes and spreading to other tissues and organs. This route is significant in the metastasis of many types of cancer, including lung cancer.

2. An oncology nurse is caring for a patient who has developed erythema following radiation therapy. What should the nurse instruct the patient to do?

• A. Periodically apply ice to the area.
• B. Keep the area cleanly shaven.
• C. Apply petroleum jelly to the affected area.
• D. Avoid using soap on the treatment area.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. When a patient develops erythema following radiation therapy, it is essential to avoid further irritation and potential infection. Using soap on the affected area can exacerbate the condition. Applying ice (choice A) may provide temporary relief for discomfort but does not address the underlying issue. Keeping the area cleanly shaven (choice B) is not necessary and may increase the risk of skin irritation. Applying petroleum jelly (choice C) can trap heat and worsen the erythema, so it is not recommended.

3. A nurse is caring for a client admitted for Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and chemotherapy. The client reports nausea, flank pain, and muscle cramps. What action by the nurse is most important?

• A. Request an order for serum electrolytes and uric acid.
• B. Increase the client’s IV infusion rate.
• C. Instruct assistive personnel to strain all urine.
• D. Administer an IV antiemetic.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client's symptoms of nausea, flank pain, and muscle cramps are suggestive of tumor lysis syndrome (TLS), a potentially life-threatening complication of chemotherapy in which cancer cells break down rapidly, releasing large amounts of intracellular components into the bloodstream. This leads to imbalances in electrolytes (elevated potassium, phosphate, and uric acid levels, with low calcium levels), which can cause severe metabolic disturbances, including kidney damage, arrhythmias, and muscle cramps. Checking serum electrolytes and uric acid levels is crucial for diagnosing and managing TLS early, preventing further complications.

4. A 62-year-old woman diagnosed with breast cancer is scheduled for a partial mastectomy. The oncology nurse explained that the surgeon will want to take tissue samples to ensure the disease has not spread to adjacent axillary lymph nodes. The patient has asked if she will have her lymph nodes dissected, like her mother did several years ago. What alternative to lymph node dissection will this patient most likely undergo?

• A. Lymphadenectomy
• B. Needle biopsy
• C. Open biopsy
• D. Sentinel node biopsy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Sentinel lymph node biopsy is a minimally invasive alternative to more extensive lymph node dissection. This procedure involves identifying and removing the first lymph node(s) to which a tumor drains, known as the sentinel node(s), to determine if cancer has spread beyond the primary site. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because lymphadenectomy refers to the surgical removal of lymph nodes, needle biopsy involves sampling tissue with a needle for analysis, and open biopsy refers to the surgical removal of a sample of tissue for examination, none of which specifically serve as an alternative to lymph node dissection in this context.

5. A client who is at risk for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) has a serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL. The nurse should take which of the following actions first?

• A. Recheck the fibrinogen level in 4 hours
• B. Notify the health care provider
• C. Continue to monitor the client
• D. Administer cryoprecipitate as prescribed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL indicates a low level, which puts the client at risk for bleeding in DIC. The priority action for the nurse is to notify the health care provider. Rechecking the fibrinogen level may delay necessary interventions, administering cryoprecipitate should be done based on the provider's prescription, and while monitoring is important, immediate notification of the provider is crucial to address the low fibrinogen level promptly.

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