ATI RN
ATI Oncology Questions
1. An oncology patient has just returned from the post-anesthesia care unit after an open hemicolectomy. This patient’s plan of nursing care should prioritize which of the following?
- A. Assess the patient hourly for signs of compartment syndrome.
- B. Assess the patient’s fine motor skills once per shift.
- C. Assess the patient’s wound for dehiscence every 4 hours.
- D. Maintain the patient’s head of bed at 45 degrees or more at all times.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After an open hemicolectomy (surgical removal of part of the colon), monitoring the surgical wound for signs of dehiscence (wound reopening) is a critical nursing priority. Dehiscence is a serious postoperative complication that can occur if the surgical site does not heal properly. Regular wound assessments every 4 hours allow the nurse to identify early signs of complications, such as redness, swelling, increased drainage, or separation of the wound edges. Early detection is key to preventing further complications, such as infection or evisceration (protrusion of abdominal organs through the wound).
2. A client is receiving chemotherapy through a peripheral IV line. What action by the nurse is most important?
- A. Assessing the IV site and blood return every hour.
- B. Educating the client on side effects.
- C. Monitoring the client for nausea.
- D. Providing warm packs for comfort.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Chemotherapy drugs are often vesicants, meaning they can cause severe tissue damage if they leak (extravasate) outside of the vein. When chemotherapy is administered through a peripheral IV line, it is crucial for the nurse to frequently assess the IV site for signs of complications such as redness, swelling, or pain, which could indicate extravasation. Checking for blood return ensures the IV catheter is still in the vein and functioning properly. Preventing tissue damage from chemotherapy extravasation is a top priority, and frequent monitoring helps ensure the infusion is proceeding safely.
3. Following an extensive diagnostic workup, an older adult patient has been diagnosed with a secondary myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). What assessment question most directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem?
- A. Were you ever exposed to toxic chemicals in any of the jobs that you held?
- B. When you were younger, did you tend to have recurrent infections of any kind?
- C. Have your parents or siblings had any disease like this?
- D. Would you say that you've had a lot of sun exposure in your lifetime?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Secondary MDS can occur at any age and results from prior toxic exposure to chemicals, including chemotherapeutic medications. Asking about exposure to toxic chemicals in previous jobs directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to the etiology of secondary MDS. Recurrent infections (Choice B) are not a known cause of MDS. Family history (Choice C) is more pertinent to primary MDS, which has a genetic component, while sun exposure (Choice D) is not associated with the etiology of MDS.
4. An oncology nurse is caring for a patient who has developed erythema following radiation therapy. What should the nurse instruct the patient to do?
- A. Periodically apply ice to the area.
- B. Keep the area cleanly shaven.
- C. Apply petroleum jelly to the affected area.
- D. Avoid using soap on the treatment area.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. When a patient develops erythema following radiation therapy, it is essential to avoid further irritation and potential infection. Using soap on the affected area can exacerbate the condition. Applying ice (choice A) may provide temporary relief for discomfort but does not address the underlying issue. Keeping the area cleanly shaven (choice B) is not necessary and may increase the risk of skin irritation. Applying petroleum jelly (choice C) can trap heat and worsen the erythema, so it is not recommended.
5. The nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a pelvic exenteration, and the health care provider changes the client's diet from NPO status to clear liquids. The nurse should check which priority item before administering the diet?
- A. Bowel sounds
- B. Ability to ambulate
- C. Incision appearance
- D. Urine specific gravity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bowel sounds. Checking for bowel sounds is crucial before administering any diet to ensure the gastrointestinal tract is functioning properly following surgery. This assessment helps prevent complications such as paralytic ileus. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority in this situation. While the ability to ambulate, incision appearance, and urine specific gravity are important assessments, ensuring bowel function takes precedence in this postoperative scenario.
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