Nursing Elites

1. An oncology patient has just returned from the post-anesthesia care unit after an open hemicolectomy. This patient’s plan of nursing care should prioritize which of the following?

• A. Assess the patient hourly for signs of compartment syndrome.
• B. Assess the patient’s fine motor skills once per shift.
• C. Assess the patient’s wound for dehiscence every 4 hours.
• D. Maintain the patient’s head of bed at 45 degrees or more at all times.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After an open hemicolectomy (surgical removal of part of the colon), monitoring the surgical wound for signs of dehiscence (wound reopening) is a critical nursing priority. Dehiscence is a serious postoperative complication that can occur if the surgical site does not heal properly. Regular wound assessments every 4 hours allow the nurse to identify early signs of complications, such as redness, swelling, increased drainage, or separation of the wound edges. Early detection is key to preventing further complications, such as infection or evisceration (protrusion of abdominal organs through the wound).

2. Nurse Joy is caring for a client with an internal radiation implant. When caring for the client, the nurse should observe which of the following principles?

• A. Limit the time with the client to 1 hour per shift
• B. Do not allow pregnant women into the client’s room
• C. Remove the dosimeter badge when entering the client’s room
• D. Individuals younger than 16 years old may be allowed to go in the room as long as they are 6 feet away from the client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients with internal radiation implants (also known as brachytherapy) emit a small amount of radiation, which can pose a risk to others. Pregnant women are particularly vulnerable to the harmful effects of radiation because it can affect both the mother and the developing fetus. Radiation exposure can lead to birth defects, miscarriage, or other developmental issues, so pregnant women should avoid any exposure by not entering the client's room.

3. A nurse is planning the care of a patient who has been admitted to the medical unit with a diagnosis of multiple myeloma. In the patients care plan, the nurse has identified a diagnosis of Risk for Injury. What pathophysiologic effect of multiple myeloma most contributes to this risk?

• A. Labyrinthitis
• B. Left ventricular hypertrophy
• C. Decreased bone density
• D. Hypercoagulation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In multiple myeloma, the malignant proliferation of plasma cells within the bone marrow leads to the secretion of osteoclast-activating factors, which increase the breakdown of bone tissue (osteolysis). This results in decreased bone density, osteoporosis, and osteolytic lesions, making bones fragile and more prone to pathologic fractures. Patients with multiple myeloma are at high risk for fractures even with minimal trauma due to the weakened bone structure, which is why Risk for Injury is a key diagnosis.

4. A nurse is caring for a patient who is being treated for leukemia in the hospital. The patient was able to maintain her nutritional status for the first few weeks following her diagnosis but is now exhibiting early signs and symptoms of malnutrition. In collaboration with the dietitian, what intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Arrange for total parenteral nutrition (TPN).
• B. Facilitate placement of a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube.
• C. Provide the patient with several small, soft-textured meals each day.
• D. Assign responsibility for the patient's nutrition to the patient's friends and family.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For patients experiencing difficulties with oral intake, the provision of small, easily chewed meals may be beneficial. Option A (TPN) and B (PEG tube placement) are more invasive interventions and should be considered if non-oral routes are necessary. Option D is not appropriate as the primary responsibility for a patient's nutrition should lie with healthcare professionals to ensure proper management and monitoring.

5. The nurse is instructing the 35 year old client to perform a testicular self-examination. The nurse tells the client:

• A. To examine the testicles while lying down
• B. That the best time for the examination is after a shower
• C. To gently feel the testicle with one finger to feel for a growth
• D. That testicular self-examination should be done at least every 6 months

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best time to perform a testicular self-examination (TSE) is after a warm shower or bath. The heat from the water relaxes the scrotal skin, making it easier to feel any abnormalities, lumps, or changes in the testicles. This relaxation allows for a more thorough and accurate examination.

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