Nursing Elites

1. The clinic nurse is caring for a 42-year-old male oncology patient. He complains of extreme fatigue and weakness after his first week of radiation therapy. Which response by the nurse would best reassure this patient?

• A. These symptoms usually result from radiation therapy; however, we will continue to monitor your laboratory and x-ray studies.
• B. These symptoms are part of your disease and are an unfortunately inevitable part of living with cancer.
• C. Try not to be concerned about these symptoms. Every patient feels this way after having radiation therapy.
• D. Even though it is uncomfortable, this is a good sign. It means that only the cancer cells are dying.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Fatigue and weakness are common side effects of radiation therapy, often due to the body’s response to radiation damage and the energy required to repair both cancerous and healthy cells affected by the treatment. Reassuring the patient that these symptoms are expected while also emphasizing ongoing monitoring (through lab and x-ray studies) provides both comfort and a sense of proactive care. It ensures the patient that their symptoms are being addressed in a safe and medically appropriate way.

2. A nurse is caring for a client admitted for Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and chemotherapy. The client reports nausea, flank pain, and muscle cramps. What action by the nurse is most important?

• A. Request an order for serum electrolytes and uric acid.
• B. Increase the client’s IV infusion rate.
• C. Instruct assistive personnel to strain all urine.
• D. Administer an IV antiemetic.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client's symptoms of nausea, flank pain, and muscle cramps are suggestive of tumor lysis syndrome (TLS), a potentially life-threatening complication of chemotherapy in which cancer cells break down rapidly, releasing large amounts of intracellular components into the bloodstream. This leads to imbalances in electrolytes (elevated potassium, phosphate, and uric acid levels, with low calcium levels), which can cause severe metabolic disturbances, including kidney damage, arrhythmias, and muscle cramps. Checking serum electrolytes and uric acid levels is crucial for diagnosing and managing TLS early, preventing further complications.

3. When working with clients experiencing alopecia, what is the best method for a nurse to help them manage the psychosocial impact of this issue?

• A. Assisting the client in pre-planning for this event.
• B. Reassuring the client that alopecia is temporary.
• C. Teaching the client ways to protect the scalp.
• D. Telling the client that there are worse side effects.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assisting the client in pre-planning for alopecia is the best method to help them manage the psychosocial impact of the issue. By helping clients anticipate and prepare for the challenges associated with alopecia, they can cope better with the psychological impact. Reassuring the client that alopecia is temporary (choice B) may provide false hope as some types of alopecia are permanent. Teaching ways to protect the scalp (choice C) is important but not the most effective method for managing the psychosocial impact. Telling the client that there are worse side effects (choice D) is dismissive of the client's feelings and not helpful in addressing the psychosocial impact of alopecia.

4. A client is having a catheter placed to deliver chemotherapy beads into a liver tumor via the femoral artery. What action by the nurse is most important?

• A. Assessing the client’s abdomen beforehand.
• B. Ensuring that informed consent is on the chart.
• C. Marking the client’s bilateral pedal pulses.
• D. Reviewing client teaching done previously.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Before any invasive procedure, such as placing a catheter to deliver chemotherapy beads into a liver tumor, it is essential to ensure that informed consent has been obtained from the client. This is a legal and ethical requirement that ensures the client understands the procedure, its risks, benefits, and alternatives. Ensuring that the signed consent is on the chart is the most important action the nurse can take before the procedure, as the procedure cannot legally proceed without it.

5. A client who is at risk for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) has a serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL. The nurse should take which of the following actions first?

• A. Recheck the fibrinogen level in 4 hours
• B. Notify the health care provider
• C. Continue to monitor the client
• D. Administer cryoprecipitate as prescribed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL indicates a low level, which puts the client at risk for bleeding in DIC. The priority action for the nurse is to notify the health care provider. Rechecking the fibrinogen level may delay necessary interventions, administering cryoprecipitate should be done based on the provider's prescription, and while monitoring is important, immediate notification of the provider is crucial to address the low fibrinogen level promptly.

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