Nursing Elites

1. The clinic nurse is caring for a 42-year-old male oncology patient. He complains of extreme fatigue and weakness after his first week of radiation therapy. Which response by the nurse would best reassure this patient?

• A. These symptoms usually result from radiation therapy; however, we will continue to monitor your laboratory and x-ray studies.
• B. These symptoms are part of your disease and are an unfortunately inevitable part of living with cancer.
• C. Try not to be concerned about these symptoms. Every patient feels this way after having radiation therapy.
• D. Even though it is uncomfortable, this is a good sign. It means that only the cancer cells are dying.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Fatigue and weakness are common side effects of radiation therapy, often due to the body’s response to radiation damage and the energy required to repair both cancerous and healthy cells affected by the treatment. Reassuring the patient that these symptoms are expected while also emphasizing ongoing monitoring (through lab and x-ray studies) provides both comfort and a sense of proactive care. It ensures the patient that their symptoms are being addressed in a safe and medically appropriate way.

2. A client who is at risk for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) has a serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL. The nurse should take which of the following actions first?

• A. Recheck the fibrinogen level in 4 hours
• B. Notify the health care provider
• C. Continue to monitor the client
• D. Administer cryoprecipitate as prescribed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL indicates a low level, which puts the client at risk for bleeding in DIC. The priority action for the nurse is to notify the health care provider. Rechecking the fibrinogen level may delay necessary interventions, administering cryoprecipitate should be done based on the provider's prescription, and while monitoring is important, immediate notification of the provider is crucial to address the low fibrinogen level promptly.

3. The nurse is assessing the perineal wound in a client who has returned from the operating room following an abdominal perineal resection and notes serosanguineous drainage from the wound. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?

• A. Clamp the Penrose drain.
• B. Change the dressing as prescribed.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider (HCP).
• D. Remove and replace the perineal packing.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the appropriate nursing intervention for serosanguineous drainage from the wound is to change the dressing as prescribed. This helps in maintaining wound cleanliness, preventing infection, and promoting proper wound healing. Clamping the Penrose drain (Choice A) is not indicated as the drainage is from the wound itself, not the drain. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice C) may be necessary if there are signs of infection or other concerning issues, but changing the dressing should be done first. Removing and replacing the perineal packing (Choice D) is not the priority in this situation unless specifically prescribed by the healthcare provider after assessing the wound.

4. An oncology nurse is caring for a patient with multiple myeloma who is experiencing bone destruction. When reviewing the patient's most recent blood tests, the nurse should anticipate what imbalance?

• A. Hypercalcemia
• B. Hyperproteinemia
• C. Elevated serum viscosity
• D. Elevated RBC count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hypercalcemia. In multiple myeloma, bone destruction can lead to the release of calcium from the bones into the bloodstream, causing hypercalcemia. This imbalance is commonly seen in patients with multiple myeloma. Choice B, Hyperproteinemia, is not typically associated with bone destruction in multiple myeloma. Choice C, Elevated serum viscosity, and Choice D, Elevated RBC count, are not directly related to the bone destruction seen in multiple myeloma.

5. The home health care nurse is caring for a client with cancer who is complaining of acute pain. The most appropriate determination of the client's pain should include which assessment?

• A. The client's pain rating
• B. Nonverbal cues from the client
• C. The nurse's impression of the client's pain
• D. Pain relief after appropriate nursing intervention

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: The client's pain rating. Pain assessment should primarily rely on the client's self-report for the most accurate determination of pain intensity. Nonverbal cues from the client (choice B) can provide additional information but should not replace the client's self-report. The nurse's impression of the client's pain (choice C) may be subjective and less reliable than the client's self-assessment. Pain relief after appropriate nursing intervention (choice D) is an important outcome but does not replace the initial assessment of the client's pain.

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