a patient with obsessive compulsive disorder ocd is performing a ritualistic handwashing routine the nurses best initial response is to
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Mental Health Practice A

1. A patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is performing a ritualistic handwashing routine. What is the nurse's best initial response?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In managing a patient with OCD engaging in ritualistic behaviors like handwashing, the nurse's best initial response is to allow the ritual but set limits on the duration. This approach helps in managing the behavior while gradually working towards reducing its frequency. Interrupting the ritual abruptly may cause distress to the patient, ignoring the behavior may reinforce it, and encouraging the patient to stop the ritual without setting limits may not be as effective in the initial stage of intervention.

2. Which of the following statements should a healthcare professional recognize as true about defense mechanisms? Select the one that doesn't apply.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Defense mechanisms are employed by the ego in the face of threats to biological and psychological integrity to relieve mild to moderate anxiety. They act as protective devices for the ego, not the id or superego. The id represents primal instincts, while the superego is associated with moral standards. Defense mechanisms help individuals cope with stressors by redirecting focus and are often unconscious and self-deceptive.

3. A patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed venlafaxine. The nurse should educate the patient about which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Venlafaxine, an SNRI, can lead to hypertension as a side effect. This medication can cause an increase in blood pressure, particularly at higher doses. Educating the patient about this potential adverse effect is crucial to enhance awareness and monitoring for any signs or symptoms of elevated blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because venlafaxine is more likely to cause hypertension rather than hypotension, bradycardia, or hyperglycemia.

4. Which intervention is most appropriate for a patient with a phobia of flying?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Exposure therapy is considered the most appropriate intervention for a patient with a phobia of flying. This therapeutic approach involves gradually exposing the individual to the feared stimulus, in this case, flying, in a controlled and supportive environment. By facing the fear in a structured manner, the patient can learn to manage their anxiety response and eventually reduce their phobia-related symptoms. While cognitive restructuring may help change negative thought patterns and medication management can alleviate symptoms, exposure therapy is specifically designed to address phobias through systematic desensitization, making it the most suitable intervention in this scenario. Psychoeducation aims to provide information and support but may not directly target the phobia itself.

5. A client with a history of alcohol use disorder is admitted to the hospital for detoxification. Which of the following symptoms shouldn't the nurse expect to observe during withdrawal?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During alcohol withdrawal, the nurse should expect to observe symptoms such as tremors, hallucinations, and diaphoresis. Seizures may also occur during severe withdrawal. Bradycardia is not typically associated with alcohol withdrawal; instead, tachycardia (an increased heart rate) is more commonly observed due to the stimulant effects of alcohol withdrawal on the sympathetic nervous system.

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