ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Practice A
1. A patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is performing a ritualistic handwashing routine. What is the nurse's best initial response?
- A. Interrupt the ritual to help the patient gain control.
- B. Allow the ritual but set limits on the duration.
- C. Ignore the behavior to avoid reinforcing it.
- D. Encourage the patient to stop the ritual and discuss their feelings.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In managing a patient with OCD engaging in ritualistic behaviors like handwashing, the nurse's best initial response is to allow the ritual but set limits on the duration. This approach helps in managing the behavior while gradually working towards reducing its frequency. Interrupting the ritual abruptly may cause distress to the patient, ignoring the behavior may reinforce it, and encouraging the patient to stop the ritual without setting limits may not be as effective in the initial stage of intervention.
2. Which of the following interventions are appropriate for a client experiencing a panic attack? Select one that does not apply.
- A. Stay with the client and remain calm
- B. Encourage deep breathing
- C. Move the client to a quiet environment
- D. Mindfulness meditation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During a panic attack, it is crucial to provide immediate support to the client. Appropriate interventions include staying with the client and remaining calm, encouraging deep breathing, and moving the client to a quiet environment. However, mindfulness meditation, which involves focusing on the present moment and may require a certain level of concentration, may not be feasible or effective during an acute panic attack. The priority is to help the client feel safe and supported, which the other interventions address more directly. Mindfulness meditation might not be suitable during a panic attack due to the heightened state of anxiety and the need for immediate calming techniques.
3. A nursing instructor is teaching a group of students about intimate partner violence. Which response by the students indicates no further teaching is needed?
- A. Alaska Native women report the highest rate of intimate partner violence.
- B. Caucasian women report the lowest rate of intimate partner violence.
- C. African American women report the highest rate of intimate partner violence.
- D. Asian women report the lowest rate of intimate partner violence.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Alaska Native women do report the highest rate of intimate partner violence. This statistic is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of to provide culturally sensitive care and interventions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect statements. While it is essential to understand disparities in intimate partner violence rates among different populations, in this context, the focus is on recognizing the accurate information provided about Alaska Native women.
4. Which of the following is a hallmark symptom of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)?
- A. Flashbacks
- B. Excessive worry
- C. Hallucinations
- D. Compulsive behaviors
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Excessive worry is a hallmark symptom of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). Individuals with GAD often experience persistent and excessive worry or anxiety about a variety of situations or activities, even when there is little or no reason to worry. This chronic worrying can significantly impact their daily functioning and quality of life, distinguishing it as a key feature of GAD. Flashbacks are more commonly associated with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), not GAD. Hallucinations are not typically seen in GAD but may be present in conditions like schizophrenia. Compulsive behaviors are characteristic of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), not GAD.
5. During a treatment team meeting, the point is made that a client with schizophrenia has recovered from the acute psychosis but continues to demonstrate apathy, avolition, and blunted affect. The nurse who relates these symptoms to serotonin excess will suggest that the client receive?
- A. Chlorpromazine
- B. Phenelzine
- C. Haloperidol
- D. Olanzapine
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the symptoms of apathy, avolition, and blunted affect are indicative of negative symptoms commonly seen in schizophrenia. These symptoms are often associated with dopamine and serotonin imbalances in the brain. Olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic, is known for its efficacy in treating both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia. It acts by blocking serotonin and dopamine receptors, helping to alleviate the symptoms mentioned. Chlorpromazine and Haloperidol are typical antipsychotics that primarily target dopamine receptors, while Phenelzine is an MAOI used to treat depression and anxiety disorders, not schizophrenia. Therefore, the most appropriate choice for this client displaying these symptoms related to serotonin excess would be Olanzapine.
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