ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 3
1. A patient with chronic renal failure should avoid which of the following?
- A. Potassium
- B. Calcium
- C. Iron
- D. Zinc
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Patients with chronic renal failure should avoid potassium due to impaired kidney function. The kidneys play a crucial role in regulating potassium levels in the body. In renal failure, the kidneys may not be able to excrete excess potassium effectively, leading to hyperkalemia. Calcium, iron, and zinc are not typically restricted in chronic renal failure unless there are specific individual circumstances, making them incorrect choices.
2. A patient taking anticoagulants should be cautious about consuming which type of food?
- A. High-protein foods
- B. High-fiber foods
- C. High-vitamin K foods
- D. High-calcium foods
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: High-vitamin K foods. Foods high in vitamin K can interfere with the effectiveness of anticoagulants. Vitamin K plays a crucial role in blood clotting, so consuming high amounts of it can counteract the anticoagulant effects. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly interfere with the action of anticoagulants.
3. The client with peripheral vascular disease is being taught by the nurse. Which interventions should the nurse discuss with the client?
- A. Keep the area between the toes dry.
- B. Wear comfortable, well-fitting shoes.
- C. Cut toenails straight across.
- D. A, B
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct interventions for a client with peripheral vascular disease include keeping the area between the toes dry and wearing comfortable, well-fitting shoes. Choice A is correct as moisture between the toes can lead to skin breakdown and infection. Choice B is also correct as proper footwear helps prevent injury and promotes circulation. Choice C, cutting toenails straight across, is incorrect for peripheral vascular disease clients as cutting them in an arch can reduce the risk of ingrown toenails, which is important for clients with diabetes to prevent complications. Therefore, choices A and B are the most appropriate interventions for the client with peripheral vascular disease.
4. A client with a diagnosis of catatonic schizophrenia is expected to exhibit which clinical finding?
- A. Crying
- B. Self-mutilation
- C. Immobile posturing
- D. Repetitious activities
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In catatonic schizophrenia, immobile posturing is a common clinical finding where the patient may maintain a rigid or bizarre posture for prolonged periods. Crying (Choice A) is not typically associated with catatonic schizophrenia. Self-mutilation (Choice B) is more commonly seen in conditions like borderline personality disorder. Repetitious activities (Choice D) are not a hallmark symptom of catatonic schizophrenia.
5. At the end of the Practical Nurse Course, the student receives a structured review to prepare the student for which of the following?
- A. The Army Nurse Course
- B. Out-processing
- C. The next duty assignment
- D. The practical nurse licensure examination
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The structured review at the end of the Practical Nurse Course aims to prepare students for the practical nurse licensure examination. This exam is a crucial step for individuals to become licensed practical nurses, ensuring they meet the required standards and qualifications to practice in the field. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as the focus of the review is specifically geared towards preparing students for the licensure examination, not for other courses, administrative processes, or duty assignments.
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