ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 1
1. After undergoing a pericardiocentesis, which interventions should the nurse implement?
- A. Monitor vital signs every 15 minutes for the first hour
- B. Evaluate the client’s cardiac rhythm
- C. Record the amount of fluid removed as output
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Following a pericardiocentesis, it is crucial for the nurse to monitor vital signs regularly, evaluate cardiac rhythm, and record the amount of fluid removed as output to detect any complications promptly. These interventions help in ensuring the client's safety and detecting any potential issues early. Therefore, selecting 'All of the above' (Choice D) is the correct answer as it encompasses all the essential interventions required post-pericardiocentesis. Choices A, B, and C are necessary actions to provide comprehensive care and monitor the client effectively.
2. The nurse is teaching the client diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes mellitus about diet. Which diet selection indicates the client understands the teaching?
- A. A submarine sandwich, potato chips, and diet cola
- B. Four (4) slices of a supreme thin-crust pizza and milk
- C. Smoked turkey sandwich, celery sticks, and unsweetened tea
- D. A roast beef sandwich, fried onion rings, and a cola
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because a smoked turkey sandwich with celery sticks and unsweetened tea is a healthier option for someone with Type 2 diabetes mellitus. Turkey is a lean protein source, celery sticks are low in calories and carbs, and unsweetened tea is a better choice than sugary beverages. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A includes high-carb and high-sugar items like potato chips and diet cola, which are not ideal for diabetes management. Choice B contains a high-carb pizza and milk, which may not be suitable for controlling blood sugar levels. Choice D includes fried onion rings and cola, which are high in unhealthy fats and sugars, making it a poor choice for a diabetic diet.
3. The nurse is caring for the client one day postoperative sigmoid colostomy operation. Which independent nursing intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Change the infusion rate of the intravenous fluid
- B. Encourage the client to discuss his or her feelings
- C. Administer opioid narcotic medications for pain management
- D. Assist the client out of bed to sit in the chair twice daily
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Assisting the client to sit in a chair is an essential nursing intervention postoperatively as it helps promote circulation, prevent complications like blood clots, and aids in the recovery process. Changing the infusion rate of intravenous fluid (Choice A) requires a physician's order and is not an independent nursing intervention. Encouraging the client to discuss feelings (Choice B) is important for emotional support but not as crucial as physical care immediately postoperatively. Administering opioid narcotic medications (Choice C) for pain management should be based on a prescribed schedule and assessment rather than being an independent nursing action.
4. A family came to the emergency department with complaints of food poisoning. Which client should the nurse see first?
- A. 32-year-old with diarrhea for 6 hours
- B. 2-year-old with 1 wet diaper in 24 hours
- C. 40-year-old with abdominal cramping
- D. 10-year-old who is nauseated
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In cases of food poisoning, a 2-year-old with reduced urine output is a critical finding indicating dehydration, requiring immediate attention to prevent complications. The reduced urine output is a sign of decreased fluid intake or increased fluid loss, putting the child at high risk for dehydration. This client should be seen first to assess hydration status, initiate necessary interventions, and prevent further complications. While the other symptoms presented by the other clients are concerning, the 2-year-old's decreased urine output poses the most immediate threat to their well-being.
5. Which potential complication should the nurse assess for in the client with infective endocarditis who has embolization of vegetative lesions from the mitral valve?
- A. Pulmonary embolism
- B. Decreased urine output
- C. Hemoptysis
- D. Deep vein thrombosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased urine output. When vegetative lesions from the mitral valve embolize, they can block blood flow to the kidneys, leading to renal infarction. This can result in decreased urine output. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Pulmonary embolism involves a blockage of an artery in the lungs, not directly related to embolization from the mitral valve. Hemoptysis is the coughing up of blood from the respiratory tract, which is not a direct consequence of embolization from the mitral valve. Deep vein thrombosis is the formation of a blood clot in a deep vein, unrelated to embolization from the mitral valve.
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