Nursing Elites

1. After undergoing a pericardiocentesis, which interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Monitor vital signs every 15 minutes for the first hour
• B. Evaluate the client’s cardiac rhythm
• C. Record the amount of fluid removed as output
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Following a pericardiocentesis, it is crucial for the nurse to monitor vital signs regularly, evaluate cardiac rhythm, and record the amount of fluid removed as output to detect any complications promptly. These interventions help in ensuring the client's safety and detecting any potential issues early. Therefore, selecting 'All of the above' (Choice D) is the correct answer as it encompasses all the essential interventions required post-pericardiocentesis. Choices A, B, and C are necessary actions to provide comprehensive care and monitor the client effectively.

2. Which of the following statements does NOT apply to a nursing plan of care?

• A. It contains short-term goals
• B. It is developed by the patient's physician
• C. It must be continually evaluated
• D. It contains long-range goals

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A nursing plan of care is developed by the nursing staff, not the patient's physician. Choice A is correct as nursing plans of care typically include short-term goals to address immediate patient needs. Choice C is correct because nursing plans of care must be continually evaluated and adjusted based on the patient's progress. Choice D is incorrect as nursing plans of care can include both short-term and long-range goals to address the patient's overall health and well-being.

3. In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?

• A. Sitting
• B. Prone
• C. Sidelying
• D. Supine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The position that best shows chest expansion as well as its movements is when the client is sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B (Prone) and Choice D (Supine) involve positions where the chest's movements and expansion are less visible and may not provide an accurate representation of respiratory function. Choice C (Sidelying) can also limit the visibility of chest expansion compared to the sitting position.

4. Who is at higher risk for drug-nutrient interactions?

• A. Infants
• B. People with diabetes
• C. Women of childbearing age
• D. Older men and women

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Older men and women are at higher risk for drug-nutrient interactions due to factors such as polypharmacy and physiological changes. Polypharmacy, common in older adults, increases the likelihood of interactions between drugs and nutrients. Physiological changes that occur with aging can affect how drugs and nutrients are absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and excreted in the body. Infants, people with diabetes, and women of childbearing age are not typically considered high-risk groups for drug-nutrient interactions compared to older adults.

5. The system used at the division level and forward comprises six basic modules. Which module is staffed with two surgeons, two nurse anesthetists, a medical/surgical nurse, two operating room specialists, and two practical nurses?

• A. Treatment squad
• B. Area support squad
• C. Medical service squad
• D. Forward surgical team

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Forward Surgical Team (FST). The FST is staffed with two surgeons, two nurse anesthetists, a medical/surgical nurse, two operating room specialists, and two practical nurses. This specialized team is designed to provide immediate surgical care close to the frontline. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not match the specific composition of personnel described in the question.

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