Nursing Elites

1. The nurse administers 2 units of salt-poor albumin to a client with portal hypertension and ascites. The nurse explains to the client that this is administered to:

• A. Provide nutrients
• B. Increase protein stores
• C. Elevate the circulating blood volume
• D. Divert blood flow away from the liver temporarily

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Elevate the circulating blood volume. Albumin increases the circulating blood volume, which helps to reduce ascites and improve hemodynamics in clients with portal hypertension. Choice A is incorrect because salt-poor albumin is not primarily administered to provide nutrients. Choice B is incorrect because the main purpose of administering albumin is not to increase protein stores but to address fluid shifts. Choice D is incorrect because administering albumin does not divert blood flow away from the liver temporarily; instead, it helps improve blood volume and circulation.

2. The nurse is teaching a community class to people with Type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which explanation would explain the development of Type 2 diabetes?

• A. The islet cells in the pancreas stop producing insulin
• B. The client eats too many foods that are high in sugar
• C. The pituitary gland does not produce vasopressin
• D. The cells become resistant to the circulating insulin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. In Type 2 diabetes, the primary issue is insulin resistance, where cells do not respond effectively to insulin. Choice A is incorrect because in Type 1 diabetes, the islet cells in the pancreas stop producing insulin. Choice B is not directly related to the development of Type 2 diabetes but rather to its management. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to a dysfunction in vasopressin production, which is not related to Type 2 diabetes.

3. The client is four hours post-operative abdominal aortic aneurysm repair. Which nursing intervention should be implemented for this client?

• A. Assist the client in ambulating
• B. Assess the client’s bilateral pedal pulses
• C. Maintain a continuous IV heparin drip
• D. Provide clear liquids to the client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing the client’s bilateral pedal pulses is crucial at this point to monitor the perfusion to the lower extremities after abdominal aortic aneurysm repair surgery. Ambulation (Choice A) may be appropriate but should be guided by the assessment findings. Maintaining a continuous IV heparin drip (Choice C) is not typically indicated post-operatively for this type of surgery. Providing clear liquids (Choice D) may not be suitable immediately after the surgery, as the client needs time to recover before resuming oral intake.

4. Which potential complication should the nurse assess for in the client with infective endocarditis who has embolization of vegetative lesions from the mitral valve?

• A. Pulmonary embolism
• B. Decreased urine output
• C. Hemoptysis
• D. Deep vein thrombosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased urine output. When vegetative lesions from the mitral valve embolize, they can block blood flow to the kidneys, leading to renal infarction. This can result in decreased urine output. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Pulmonary embolism involves a blockage of an artery in the lungs, not directly related to embolization from the mitral valve. Hemoptysis is the coughing up of blood from the respiratory tract, which is not a direct consequence of embolization from the mitral valve. Deep vein thrombosis is the formation of a blood clot in a deep vein, unrelated to embolization from the mitral valve.

5. For which client situation would a consultation with a rapid response team (RRT) be most appropriate?

• A. 45-year-old; 2 years post kidney transplant; second hospital day for treatment of pneumonia; no urine output for 6 hours; temperature 101.4°F; heart rate of 98 beats per minute; respirations 20 breaths per minute; blood pressure 88/72 mm Hg; is restless
• B. 72-year-old; 24 hours after removal of a chest tube that was used to drain pleural fluid (effusion); temperature 97.8°F; heart rate 92 beats per minute; respirations 28 breaths per minute; blood pressure 132/86 mm Hg; anxious about going home
• C. 56-year-old fourth hospital day after a coronary artery bypass procedure; sore chest; pain with walking temperature 97°F; heart rate 84 beats per minute; respirations 22 breaths per minute; blood pressure 87/72 mm Hg; bored with hospitalization.
• D. 86-year-old; 48 hours postoperative repair of a fractured hip (nail inserted; alert; oriented; using patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump; temperature 96.8°F; heart rate 60 beats per minute; respirations 16 breaths per minute; blood pressure 90/62 mm Hg; talking with daughter.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A consultation with a Rapid Response Team (RRT) is most appropriate for the 45-year-old client described in Choice A. This client is 2 years post kidney transplant, presenting with no urine output for 6 hours, a temperature of 101.4°F, heart rate of 98 beats per minute, respirations of 20 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 88/72 mm Hg, along with restlessness. These clinical signs are indicative of possible acute renal failure and sepsis, requiring immediate intervention by the rapid response team. Choices B, C, and D do not present the same level of urgency and severity of symptoms as the client in Choice A, making them less appropriate for consultation with the RRT.

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