Nursing Elites

1. What is the term for the infection of small sacs that protrude from the lumen of the colon?

• A. Diverticulosis
• B. Diverticulitis
• C. Cholelithiasis
• D. Cholecystitis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Diverticulitis. Diverticulitis specifically refers to the infection or inflammation of diverticula in the colon. Choice A, Diverticulosis, is incorrect as it refers to the condition of having diverticula without inflammation or infection. Choices C and D, Cholelithiasis and Cholecystitis, are unrelated conditions affecting the gallbladder, not the colon.

2. Which laboratory data indicate the client’s pancreatitis is improving?

• A. The amylase and lipase serum levels are decreased
• B. The white blood cell count (WBC) is decreased
• C. The conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin levels are decreased
• D. The blood urea nitrogen (BUN) serum level is decreased

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Amylase and lipase are specific markers for pancreatitis. A decrease in their serum levels indicates improvement in pancreatitis. Choice B, a decreased white blood cell count (WBC), is more indicative of an improvement in infection rather than pancreatitis. Choices C and D, decreased bilirubin levels and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels respectively, are not specific markers for pancreatitis improvement.

3. When a patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant, what should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Elevated blood glucose
• B. Decreased blood pressure
• C. Signs of bleeding
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant, the nurse should monitor for signs of bleeding. Oral anticoagulants work by inhibiting the blood's ability to clot, which increases the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of bleeding such as easy bruising, petechiae, hematuria, or bleeding gums is crucial to prevent complications. Elevated blood glucose (Choice A) is not directly related to oral anticoagulant use. Decreased blood pressure (Choice B) is not a common effect of oral anticoagulants. Increased appetite (Choice D) is not a typical side effect of oral anticoagulants and is not a primary concern when monitoring a patient on this medication.

4. Which hospital level is a 296-bed facility that is staffed and equipped to provide care for all categories of patients?

• A. FSB
• B. CSH
• C. GH
• D. FH

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is "GH" (General Hospital), which is a 296-bed facility providing comprehensive care for all categories of patients. Choice A, FSB, is incorrect as it does not denote a hospital level. Choice B, CSH, is incorrect as it does not specify a 296-bed facility. Choice D, FH, is incorrect as it does not indicate a hospital level or capacity.

5. The client is recovering from a percutaneous renal biopsy. Which data indicate that the client is complying with client teaching?

• A. The client lies flat in the supine position for 12 hours
• B. The client continues oral fluids restriction while on bed rest
• C. The client’s family changed the dressing on return to the room
• D. The family activates the patient-controlled analgesia pump

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Lying flat in the supine position for 12 hours after a renal biopsy helps prevent bleeding, which is crucial for the client's recovery. This position aids in applying pressure to the biopsy site, reducing the risk of bleeding and ensuring optimal healing. Choices B, C, and D do not directly relate to compliance with client teaching after a renal biopsy. Continuing oral fluids restriction, changing the dressing, or activating a patient-controlled analgesia pump are not specific instructions aimed at promoting recovery and preventing complications post renal biopsy.

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