ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 1
1. A client who is postpartum and has been diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia is receiving education from a nurse. Which dietary recommendation should be included in the education plan?
- A. Yogurt and mozzarella
- B. Spinach and beef
- C. Fish and cottage cheese
- D. Turkey slices and milk
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Spinach and beef.' Spinach and beef are high in iron, which is crucial for treating iron deficiency anemia. Spinach is a good source of non-heme iron, while beef provides heme iron, making them effective choices to increase iron levels in the body. Yogurt and mozzarella (Choice A), fish and cottage cheese (Choice C), and turkey slices and milk (Choice D) do not contain as high iron content as spinach and beef, making them less effective in addressing iron deficiency anemia.
2. Enteral feedings may be appropriate for patients with:
- A. Acute cholecystitis
- B. Hepatic encephalopathy
- C. Ulcerative colitis in remission
- D. Acute exacerbation of Crohn’s disease
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Enteral feedings are commonly used in patients with Crohn’s disease during acute exacerbations to provide adequate nutrition while resting the bowel. Acute cholecystitis, hepatic encephalopathy, and ulcerative colitis in remission wouldn't typically require enteral feedings as the primary nutritional support. Acute cholecystitis may necessitate fasting and intravenous fluids, hepatic encephalopathy may require dietary modifications but not enteral feedings, and patients with ulcerative colitis in remission usually have their nutritional needs met through a regular diet.
3. The nurse is administering a beta blocker to the client diagnosed with essential hypertension. Which data would cause the nurse to question administering the medication?
- A. The client’s BP is 110/70
- B. The client’s potassium level is 3.4 mEq/L
- C. The client has a barky cough
- D. The client’s apical pulse is 56
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A beta blocker should be withheld if the apical pulse is below 60, as it can further decrease the heart rate. Choice A is not a reason to question administering the medication as the blood pressure is within a normal range for a client with essential hypertension. Choice B is not directly related to the administration of a beta blocker. Choice C suggests a potential side effect of an ACE inhibitor, not a beta blocker.
4. The nurse is told in report that the client has aortic stenosis. Which anatomical position should the nurse auscultate to assess the murmur?
- A. Second intercostal space, right sternal border
- B. Erb’s point
- C. Second intercostal space, left sternal border
- D. Fourth intercostal space, left sternal border
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct anatomical position for auscultating the murmur of aortic stenosis is the second intercostal space, right sternal border. This is where the aortic valve is best auscultated, and the murmur of aortic stenosis is heard most clearly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as the murmur of aortic stenosis is best heard at the second intercostal space on the right side of the sternum.
5. The nurse is aware that norepinephrine is secreted by which endocrine gland?
- A. The pancreas
- B. The adrenal cortex
- C. The adrenal medulla
- D. The anterior pituitary gland
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: The adrenal medulla. Norepinephrine is secreted by the adrenal medulla and is involved in the body's 'fight or flight' response. The pancreas (choice A) secretes insulin and glucagon, not norepinephrine. The adrenal cortex (choice B) secretes hormones like cortisol and aldosterone, but not norepinephrine. The anterior pituitary gland (choice D) secretes various hormones like growth hormone and thyroid-stimulating hormone, but not norepinephrine.
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