which of the following is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 4

1. Which of the following is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, administering phosphate binders. Phosphate binders are a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia as they help by binding phosphorus in the gut, preventing its absorption. Increasing calcium intake (choice A) or phosphorus intake (choice B) would exacerbate hyperphosphatemia. Decreasing calcium intake (choice C) is not a primary intervention for managing high phosphorus levels.

2. Protecting the rights and privacy of the patient and their family is a part of which of the following steps for determining and fulfilling the nursing care needs of the patient?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In nursing care, implementation involves putting the nursing care plan into action. This step includes safeguarding the rights and privacy of the patient and their family by providing care in a respectful and confidential manner. Evaluation (A) is about assessing the effectiveness of the care provided. Planning (B) is the stage where specific interventions are designed. Assessment (D) is the initial step where data is collected to identify the patient's needs.

3. The nurse is teaching the client diagnosed with colon cancer who is scheduled for a colostomy the next day. Which behavior indicates the best method of applying adult teaching principles?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the best method of applying adult teaching principles because repeating information and addressing the client’s questions as they arise is effective for reinforcing learning in adults. This approach allows for clarification of doubts and ensures that the client understands the information provided. Choice B is incorrect as teaching all the information in one session may overwhelm the client and hinder retention. Choice C is incorrect as using medical terms without ensuring the client's understanding may lead to confusion. Choice D is incorrect because waiting for the client to ask questions may result in missed opportunities to address important information proactively.

4. Which of the following is a specialized medical treatment and teaching facility that provides general and specialized medical and dental care and treatment?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, 'MEDCEN.' A MEDCEN (Medical Center) is a specialized medical treatment and teaching facility that offers general and specialized medical and dental care. Choice A, 'CONUS,' refers to the continental United States and is not related to medical facilities. Choice C, 'MEDCOM,' stands for Medical Command, which is an administrative entity responsible for overseeing medical units, not providing direct care. Choice D, 'MEDDAC,' refers to Medical Department Activity, which is a smaller medical unit compared to a MEDCEN and may not provide the same level of specialized care.

5. Which instructions should the nurse discuss with the client diagnosed with Raynaud’s phenomenon?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client diagnosed with Raynaud’s phenomenon is to wear extra warm clothing during cold exposure. This is essential in preventing vasospasms triggered by cold temperatures, which can worsen symptoms of Raynaud's phenomenon. Choice A is incorrect because exacerbations can occur in any season. Choice B is irrelevant and not directly related to managing Raynaud's phenomenon. Choice D is also incorrect as sunlight exposure does not significantly impact Raynaud's phenomenon.

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