Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia?

• A. Increasing calcium intake
• B. Increasing phosphorus intake
• C. Decreasing calcium intake
• D. Administering phosphate binders

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, administering phosphate binders. Phosphate binders are a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia as they help by binding phosphorus in the gut, preventing its absorption. Increasing calcium intake (choice A) or phosphorus intake (choice B) would exacerbate hyperphosphatemia. Decreasing calcium intake (choice C) is not a primary intervention for managing high phosphorus levels.

2. Which of the following is a nonmedical member of a unit who receives additional training in providing care beyond basic first aid procedures?

• A. Area support squad leader
• B. ATLS specialist
• C. Tactical lifesaver
• D. Combat lifesaver

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Combat lifesaver. A Combat Lifesaver is a nonmedical member of a unit who receives specialized training in advanced first aid procedures, beyond basic first aid care. This training equips them to provide crucial medical assistance in emergency situations where immediate medical personnel may not be available. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not specifically refer to nonmedical members trained in advanced first aid care beyond basic procedures.

3. What is the most crucial and most difficult management skill required of the M6 practical nurse?

• A. Preparing time schedules and task assignment rosters
• B. Inspecting equipment for damage and proper function
• C. Preparing reports and maintaining records
• D. Effectively managing personnel

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Correct. Effectively managing personnel is indeed the most crucial and difficult management skill required of a practical nurse. This skill involves supervising, motivating, and coordinating the work of other healthcare staff, ensuring optimal patient care. Choices A, B, and C are important tasks but do not necessarily involve the same level of complexity and interpersonal skills required for managing personnel in a healthcare setting.

4. The nurse is caring for a client in a sickle cell crisis. Which is the pain regimen of choice to relieve the pain?

• A. Frequent aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) and a non-narcotic analgesic
• B. Motrin (ibuprofen), an NSAID, PRN
• C. Demerol (meperidine), a narcotic analgesic, every four (4) hours
• D. Morphine, a narcotic analgesic, every two (2) to three (3) hours PRN

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a sickle cell crisis, morphine is the preferred analgesic due to its potency and effectiveness in managing severe pain. Choice A is incorrect because aspirin is contraindicated in sickle cell disease due to its potential to cause a further decrease in blood flow. Choice B, Motrin (ibuprofen), is also not the ideal choice as NSAIDs can exacerbate renal complications in sickle cell patients. Choice C, Demerol (meperidine), is not recommended for sickle cell pain management due to its toxic metabolite accumulation which can cause seizures and other complications.

5. Which endocrine disorder would the nurse assess for in the client who has a closed head injury with increased intracranial pressure?

• A. Pheochromocytoma
• B. Diabetes insipidus
• C. Hashimoto's disease
• D. Gynecomastia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Diabetes insipidus. Diabetes insipidus can develop after a head injury due to damage to the hypothalamus or pituitary gland, leading to a deficiency in antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Pheochromocytoma (Choice A) is a tumor of the adrenal gland that causes excessive release of catecholamines, leading to hypertension. Hashimoto's disease (Choice C) is an autoimmune condition affecting the thyroid gland. Gynecomastia (Choice D) refers to the enlargement of breast tissue in males and is not directly related to a closed head injury with increased intracranial pressure.

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