which of the following is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 4

1. Which of the following is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, administering phosphate binders. Phosphate binders are a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia as they help by binding phosphorus in the gut, preventing its absorption. Increasing calcium intake (choice A) or phosphorus intake (choice B) would exacerbate hyperphosphatemia. Decreasing calcium intake (choice C) is not a primary intervention for managing high phosphorus levels.

2. The system used at the division level and forward comprises six basic modules. Which module is composed of practical nurses, medical specialists, and equipment to provide medical support for minimal care patients?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Patient Holding Squad is the module that is composed of practical nurses, medical specialists, and equipment to provide medical support for minimal care patients. This squad focuses on providing necessary care for patients who require minimal attention. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not specifically cater to the needs of minimal care patients. The Treatment Squad may involve more intensive procedures, the Area Support Squad focuses on broader support functions, and the Surgical Squad is specialized for surgical interventions.

3. The nurse is preparing to assist in examining a Hispanic child who was brought to the clinic by the mother. During the assessment of the child, the nurse should take which action(s)?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Building rapport with the child is essential to establish trust and cooperation during the assessment. Admiring the child may not be appropriate in a professional setting and might not contribute significantly to the assessment. Taking the child's temperature is a routine part of the assessment but may not be the most critical action in this scenario. Obtaining an interpreter is crucial to ensure effective communication between the healthcare team and the child and their mother, especially considering potential language barriers.

4. Which potential complication should the nurse assess for in the client with infective endocarditis who has embolization of vegetative lesions from the mitral valve?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased urine output. When vegetative lesions from the mitral valve embolize, they can block blood flow to the kidneys, leading to renal infarction. This can result in decreased urine output. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Pulmonary embolism involves a blockage of an artery in the lungs, not directly related to embolization from the mitral valve. Hemoptysis is the coughing up of blood from the respiratory tract, which is not a direct consequence of embolization from the mitral valve. Deep vein thrombosis is the formation of a blood clot in a deep vein, unrelated to embolization from the mitral valve.

5. In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The position that best shows chest expansion as well as its movements is when the client is sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B (Prone) and Choice D (Supine) involve positions where the chest's movements and expansion are less visible and may not provide an accurate representation of respiratory function. Choice C (Sidelying) can also limit the visibility of chest expansion compared to the sitting position.

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