Nursing Elites

1. A patient who reports stomach ulcers should avoid all the following foods, except one. Which is the exception?

• A. Proteins
• B. Caffeine
• C. Calcium
• D. Wheat

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Patients with stomach ulcers are advised to avoid foods that can increase stomach acid levels, such as caffeine, proteins, and calcium. Wheat, on the other hand, is generally well-tolerated by individuals with ulcers as it does not stimulate gastric secretions. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A (Proteins), B (Caffeine), and C (Calcium) are not recommended for patients with stomach ulcers due to their potential to exacerbate symptoms.

2. Proteolytic enzymes are most likely to break down which food type?

• A. Carbohydrates
• B. Proteins
• C. Fats
• D. Lipids

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Proteolytic enzymes target proteins for breakdown into amino acids. Carbohydrates are broken down by enzymes like amylase, while fats are broken down by lipase. Lipids, which include fats, are not specifically targeted by proteolytic enzymes.

3. Which statement by a client indicates a need for further teaching about food safety?

• A. I will use the food before the expiration date listed on the package.
• B. I will wash my strawberries before I eat them.
• C. I will drink unpasteurized milk as it has many gut-healthy probiotics.
• D. I will wash my hands after I prepare raw chicken.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because drinking unpasteurized milk can contain harmful bacteria, which poses a risk to food safety. Choice A is correct as it emphasizes using food before the expiration date. Choice B is also correct as washing fruits before consumption is a good food safety practice. Choice D is correct as well since washing hands after handling raw chicken is crucial to prevent cross-contamination. Therefore, choice C is the only statement that indicates a need for further teaching on food safety.

4. The nurse notes that the fall might also cause a possible head injury. The patient will be observed for signs of increased intracranial pressure which include:

• A. Narrowing of the pulse pressure
• B. Vomiting
• C. Periorbital edema
• D. A positive Kernig's sign

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Periorbital edema is a sign of increased intracranial pressure. It is caused by fluid accumulation around the eyes due to compromised drainage. Narrowing of the pulse pressure is more indicative of shock than increased intracranial pressure. While vomiting can be a sign of increased intracranial pressure, it is not as specific as periorbital edema. A positive Kernig's sign is associated with meningitis, not increased intracranial pressure.

5. A nurse is planning care for a client who has ascites secondary to liver disease. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Reduce complex carbohydrates to 30% of total calories.
• B. Restrict protein intake to less than 0.8 g/kg/day.
• C. Decrease daily caloric intake by 20%.
• D. Limit sodium to 2000 mg or less per day.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to limit sodium to 2000 mg or less per day. Ascites, which is the abnormal accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity, is commonly associated with liver disease. Limiting sodium intake helps manage fluid retention by reducing the fluid accumulation in the abdomen. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because reducing complex carbohydrates, restricting protein intake, or decreasing caloric intake are not the primary interventions for managing ascites in liver disease.

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