a patient presents with a chronic cough night sweats and weight loss a chest x ray reveals upper lobe cavitary lesions which of the following is the m
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Pathophysiology Practice Questions

1. A patient presents with a chronic cough, night sweats, and weight loss. A chest X-ray reveals upper lobe cavitary lesions. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tuberculosis. Cavitary lesions in the upper lobes are classic findings seen in tuberculosis. This infectious disease commonly presents with symptoms such as chronic cough, night sweats, and weight loss. Pneumonia (Choice B) typically does not present with cavitary lesions on chest X-ray. Lung cancer (Choice C) may present with similar symptoms but is less likely to cause cavitary lesions in the upper lobes. Sarcoidosis (Choice D) usually presents with bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy and non-caseating granulomas, different from the cavitary lesions described in the case.

2. A 52-year-old male patient is taking finasteride (Proscar) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). What patient teaching should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Finasteride, used for BPH, can be harmful to a developing male fetus. Therefore, women who are or may become pregnant should not handle crushed or broken tablets to avoid potential absorption through the skin. Choice A is incorrect as finasteride can be taken with or without food. Choice B is incorrect because there is no specific interaction between finasteride and NSAIDs mentioned. Choice C is incorrect as finasteride does not typically cause drowsiness or impair mental alertness.

3. An experiment is designed to determine specific cell types involved in cell-mediated immune response. The experimenter is interested in finding cells that attack cells that have specific antigens. Which cells should be isolated?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cytotoxic T cells are the key players in cell-mediated immunity as they directly attack cells displaying specific antigens. Lymphokine-producing cells (Choice A) are involved in cytokine production, while Helper T cells (Choice C) assist in activating other immune cells. Macrophages (Choice D) are phagocytic cells that engulf and digest pathogens, but they are not the primary cells responsible for directly attacking cells with specific antigens in cell-mediated immunity.

4. A patient is starting on finasteride (Proscar) for the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). What should the nurse include in the patient teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The effects of finasteride in treating BPH may take several weeks or months to become noticeable. It is important for the nurse to educate the patient about this expected time frame to manage expectations. Choice A is incorrect because finasteride does not cure BPH but helps in managing symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as one of the side effects of finasteride is decreased hair growth. Choice D is incorrect as finasteride may cause a decrease in libido as a side effect.

5. In a patient with HIV infected with Mycobacterium avium complex from an indoor pool, which of the following medications is the recommended treatment for MAC?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Clarithromycin. Clarithromycin is one of the recommended medications for treating Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) infections in patients with HIV. It is a macrolide antibiotic that is effective against MAC. Isoniazid (INH) is used to treat tuberculosis, not MAC. Rifabutin is another medication used in the treatment of MAC infections, but clarithromycin is preferred as a first-line agent. Azithromycin is also used in the treatment of MAC infections; however, clarithromycin is more commonly recommended due to its efficacy and safety profile.

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