Nursing Elites

1. A male patient with hypogonadism is receiving testosterone therapy. What is the most serious adverse effect the nurse should monitor for?

• A. Increased risk of breast cancer
• B. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
• C. Increased risk of liver dysfunction
• D. Increased risk of prostate cancer

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Testosterone therapy can lead to an increased risk of cardiovascular events such as heart attacks and strokes, especially in older patients. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of cardiovascular issues is crucial when administering testosterone therapy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because testosterone therapy does not typically lead to an increased risk of breast cancer, liver dysfunction, or prostate cancer.

2. A patient is being treated with raloxifene (Evista) for osteoporosis. What should the nurse teach the patient about this medication?

• A. It is used as a selective estrogen receptor modulator to prevent bone loss.
• B. It works by decreasing bone formation and increasing bone resorption.
• C. It should be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal side effects.
• D. It may cause weight gain and fluid retention.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Raloxifene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) used to prevent bone loss. It should be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal side effects, not on an empty stomach. Choices A and B are incorrect because raloxifene is indeed a SERM that prevents bone loss, but it does not directly work by increasing bone formation or decreasing bone resorption. Choice D is incorrect as weight gain and fluid retention are not common side effects of raloxifene.

3. A patient taking oral contraceptives reports breakthrough bleeding. What should the nurse assess in this patient?

• A. Adherence to the medication schedule
• B. The possibility of pregnancy
• C. The need for an increased dosage
• D. The effectiveness of the current oral contraceptive

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient on oral contraceptives experiences breakthrough bleeding, the nurse should assess the patient's adherence to the medication schedule. Breakthrough bleeding can be a sign of missed doses or inconsistent timing, which can decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives. Assessing the patient's adherence helps in ensuring proper use of the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because breakthrough bleeding is more likely related to adherence issues rather than pregnancy, the need for increased dosage, or the effectiveness of the current oral contraceptive.

4. A 23-year-old pregnant female visits her primary care provider for her final prenatal checkup. The primary care provider determines that the fetus has developed an infection in utero. Which of the following would be increased in the fetus at birth?

• A. IgG
• B. IgA
• C. IgM
• D. IgD

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is IgM. IgM is the first antibody produced in response to an infection and is elevated in a fetus with an in utero infection. IgG is the primary antibody responsible for providing immunity to the fetus and is transferred across the placenta during the third trimester. IgA is mainly found in mucosal areas and colostrum but not significantly elevated in fetal infections. IgD is involved in the development and maturation of B cells but not typically increased in fetal infections.

5. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a patient who will be taking sildenafil (Viagra). Which of the following should the nurse include in the instructions?

• A. Take this medication 1 hour before sexual activity.
• B. Do not take more than one dose in a 24-hour period.
• C. Seek immediate medical attention if you experience vision or hearing loss.
• D. Take this medication on an empty stomach.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Do not take more than one dose in a 24-hour period.' It is essential for the nurse to emphasize this instruction to prevent potential adverse effects from taking multiple doses of sildenafil. Choice A is incorrect because sildenafil should be taken approximately 30 minutes to 4 hours before sexual activity, not specifically 1 hour before. Choice C is important but not the priority; while vision or hearing loss are potential serious side effects of sildenafil, the immediate concern should be focused on dose frequency. Choice D is incorrect as sildenafil can be taken with or without food.

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