Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulant therapy. Which complication should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Pulmonary embolism
• B. Gastrointestinal bleeding
• C. Hemorrhagic stroke
• D. Renal insufficiency

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, pulmonary embolism. In a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) receiving anticoagulant therapy, the nurse should monitor for pulmonary embolism, as it is a serious complication. Pulmonary embolism occurs when a blood clot dislodges from the veins and travels to the lungs, potentially causing life-threatening consequences. Choices B, gastrointestinal bleeding, C, hemorrhagic stroke, and D, renal insufficiency, are not directly associated with deep vein thrombosis or anticoagulant therapy. While these complications may occur in other situations, they are not the primary concern when managing a client with a history of DVT.

2. A patient has been prescribed conjugated estrogens for the treatment of menopausal symptoms. What should the nurse include in the patient teaching?

• A. Increase the intake of calcium-rich foods.
• B. Decrease the intake of high-fat foods.
• C. Avoid the use of tobacco.
• D. Avoid exposure to sunlight.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increase the intake of calcium-rich foods. Patients taking conjugated estrogens should increase their intake of calcium-rich foods to help prevent osteoporosis. Estrogen therapy can lead to an increased risk of osteoporosis, so ensuring an adequate intake of calcium is crucial. Choices B, decreasing high-fat foods, and C, avoiding tobacco, are general health recommendations but not directly related to the prescription of conjugated estrogens. Choice D, avoiding exposure to sunlight, is not a direct concern when taking conjugated estrogens.

3. During admission, 82-year-old Mr. Robeson is brought to the medical-surgical unit for diagnostic confirmation and management of probable delirium. Which statement by the client’s daughter best supports the diagnosis?

• A. “Maybe it’s just caused by aging. This usually happens by age 82.”
• B. “The changes in his behavior came on so quickly! I wasn’t sure what was happening.”
• C. “Dad just didn’t seem to know what he was doing. He would forget what he had for breakfast.”
• D. “Dad has always been so independent. He’s lived alone for years since mom died.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because sudden onset of behavioral changes is a typical symptom of delirium. Delirium is characterized by an acute and fluctuating disturbance in attention, awareness, and cognition. Choice A is incorrect because delirium is not a normal part of aging. Choice C describes memory issues, which can be seen in delirium but are less specific than sudden behavioral changes. Choice D, while it mentions the patient's independence, does not directly support the diagnosis of delirium.

4. What aspect of hormonal contraceptives places a woman at the greatest risk for the development of blood clots?

• A. Hormonal contraceptives increase serum triglyceride and cholesterol levels.
• B. Hormonal contraceptives increase platelet levels.
• C. Hormonal contraceptives increase blood levels of clotting factors.
• D. Hormonal contraceptives cause injury to blood vessel linings.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Hormonal contraceptives increase blood levels of clotting factors, particularly factors II, VII, IX, and X. This elevation in clotting factors can predispose individuals to thromboembolic events, including blood clots. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because hormonal contraceptives do not have a significant effect on serum triglycerides and cholesterol, platelet levels, or causing direct injury to blood vessel linings as the primary mechanism for clot formation.

5. A patient is prescribed estradiol (Estrace) for hormone replacement therapy. What should the nurse monitor during this therapy?

• A. Blood pressure
• B. Blood glucose levels
• C. Liver function tests
• D. Kidney function tests

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During estradiol therapy, the nurse should monitor liver function tests. Estradiol can potentially impact liver function, making it essential to assess for any signs of liver dysfunction. Monitoring blood pressure (Choice A) is not directly related to estradiol therapy. While blood glucose levels (Choice B) should be monitored in patients taking certain medications like corticosteroids or antipsychotics, it is not typically necessary for patients on estradiol therapy. Kidney function tests (Choice D) are not the priority for monitoring during estradiol therapy, as the liver is more commonly affected.

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