ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A patient presents in the Emergency Department immediately following a shooting incident in a school where she has been teaching. There is no evidence of physical injury, but she appears very hyperactive and talkative. Which of these symptoms manifested by the patient are common initial biological responses to stress? Select one that doesn't apply.
- A. Constricted pupils
- B. Watery eyes
- C. Unusual food cravings
- D. Increased heart rate
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When faced with stress, the body can react in various ways. Symptoms such as constricted pupils, increased heart rate, and increased respirations are commonly seen as initial biological responses to stress. In this case, the presence of constricted pupils is not typically associated with stress responses. Dilated pupils are more commonly linked to the Fight or Flight response. Watery eyes and increased heart rate are typical responses to stress. Unusual food cravings are not considered a typical biological response to stress.
2. When educating a client prescribed diazepam for anxiety, which statement indicates an accurate understanding of the medication?
- A. I should take this medication only when I feel anxious.
- B. I should avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
- C. I should avoid driving until I know how this medication affects me.
- D. I can stop taking this medication abruptly if I feel better.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients prescribed diazepam for anxiety should avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication. Alcohol can potentiate the side effects of diazepam, such as drowsiness and dizziness, increasing the risk of harm. Choice A is incorrect because diazepam is typically taken regularly as prescribed, not just when feeling anxious. Choice C is also important but not directly related to the medication itself. Choice D is dangerous advice; stopping diazepam abruptly can lead to withdrawal symptoms and should only be done under medical supervision.
3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with bipolar disorder who is experiencing a depressive episode. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect? Select one that does not apply.
- A. High energy
- B. Feelings of hopelessness
- C. Insomnia or hypersomnia
- D. Decreased appetite
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During a depressive episode in bipolar disorder, clients typically exhibit low energy levels, feelings of hopelessness, insomnia or hypersomnia, and decreased appetite. High energy levels are more commonly seen in manic episodes of bipolar disorder.
4. During a mental status examination, which of the following components should not be included in the assessment?
- A. Appearance and behavior
- B. Giving advice
- C. Mood and affect
- D. Cognitive function
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During a mental status examination, components such as appearance and behavior, mood and affect, and cognitive function are assessed. Giving advice is not a component of a mental status examination as it focuses on evaluating the client's mental state rather than providing guidance or recommendations.
5. A client is experiencing alcohol withdrawal. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?
- A. Administer benzodiazepines as prescribed.
- B. Monitor the client's vital signs every 4 hours.
- C. Provide a high-protein diet.
- D. Encourage the client to drink plenty of fluids.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering benzodiazepines as prescribed is a crucial intervention in managing alcohol withdrawal. Benzodiazepines help alleviate symptoms such as anxiety, agitation, and seizures commonly seen in alcohol withdrawal. Monitoring vital signs is important to assess the client's physiological stability, but addressing the withdrawal symptoms with benzodiazepines is a priority to prevent severe complications. Providing a high-protein diet and encouraging fluid intake are important for overall health but do not directly manage alcohol withdrawal symptoms.
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