when should a nurse be most alert to the possibility of communication errors resulting in harm to the patient
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023

1. When should healthcare professionals be most alert to the possibility of communication errors resulting in harm to the patient?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Healthcare professionals should be most alert to the possibility of communication errors resulting in harm to the patient during change of shift reports. This is a critical time when information is transferred between healthcare providers, and any errors in communication during this handover can lead to adverse outcomes for the patient.

2. In a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) undergoing cognitive-behavioral therapy, which outcome indicates that the therapy is effective?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In clients with OCD undergoing cognitive-behavioral therapy, a decrease in the frequency of compulsive behaviors is a key indicator of treatment effectiveness. This reduction signifies progress in managing and controlling the compulsions associated with OCD, which is a primary goal of the therapy. Choices B, C, and D may also be positive outcomes of therapy, but the most critical aspect in treating OCD with cognitive-behavioral therapy is targeting and reducing the frequency of compulsive behaviors.

3. Which client action is an example of the defense mechanism of displacement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Displacement involves redirecting emotions, often anger or aggression, from their original source to a less threatening target. In this scenario, the woman redirects her frustration from work towards her children, who are perceived as less threatening and safer to express anger towards.

4. A client with depression is experiencing anhedonia. Which statement by the client reflects this symptom?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Anhedonia is the inability to experience pleasure from activities usually found enjoyable. The statement 'I don't enjoy the things I used to love' directly reflects this symptom as the client is expressing a lack of pleasure from previously enjoyable activities. Choices A, C, and D do not specifically relate to anhedonia but rather indicate symptoms of anxiety, concentration difficulties, and sleep disturbances, respectively.

5. In evaluating a client's response to stress, what would indicate a secondary appraisal of the stressful event?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A secondary appraisal occurs when an individual evaluates the resources and skills required to cope with a stressful event. This type of appraisal focuses on the person's perceived ability to manage the situation. In contrast, choices A, B, and D do not involve the assessment of resources and skills. Choice A relates to a benign judgment of the event, choice B to an irrelevant judgment, and choice D to a pleasurable judgment, which are aspects of primary rather than secondary appraisals.

Similar Questions

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A patient with schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine. The nurse should monitor the patient for which common side effect?
A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has been prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac). Which information should the nurse include?
Which of the following are cultural aspects of mental illness? Select one that doesn't apply.

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