ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023
1. When should healthcare professionals be most alert to the possibility of communication errors resulting in harm to the patient?
- A. Change of shift reports
- B. Admission interviews
- C. One-to-one conversations with patients
- D. Conversations with patient families
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Healthcare professionals should be most alert to the possibility of communication errors resulting in harm to the patient during change of shift reports. This is a critical time when information is transferred between healthcare providers, and any errors in communication during this handover can lead to adverse outcomes for the patient.
2. In a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) undergoing cognitive-behavioral therapy, which outcome indicates that the therapy is effective?
- A. The client reports a decrease in the frequency of compulsive behaviors.
- B. The client reports a decrease in the intensity of obsessive thoughts.
- C. The client reports an improvement in overall mood.
- D. The client reports an improvement in sleep patterns.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In clients with OCD undergoing cognitive-behavioral therapy, a decrease in the frequency of compulsive behaviors is a key indicator of treatment effectiveness. This reduction signifies progress in managing and controlling the compulsions associated with OCD, which is a primary goal of the therapy. Choices B, C, and D may also be positive outcomes of therapy, but the most critical aspect in treating OCD with cognitive-behavioral therapy is targeting and reducing the frequency of compulsive behaviors.
3. Which client action is an example of the defense mechanism of displacement?
- A. A man kicks his dog after an argument with his boss.
- B. A woman yells at her children after a stressful day at work.
- C. A student immerses herself in studying to avoid thinking about a recent breakup.
- D. A person channels aggressive impulses into playing a sport.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Displacement involves redirecting emotions, often anger or aggression, from their original source to a less threatening target. In this scenario, the woman redirects her frustration from work towards her children, who are perceived as less threatening and safer to express anger towards.
4. A client with depression is experiencing anhedonia. Which statement by the client reflects this symptom?
- A. I feel so anxious all the time.
- B. I don't enjoy the things I used to love.
- C. I can't concentrate on anything.
- D. I have trouble sleeping through the night.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Anhedonia is the inability to experience pleasure from activities usually found enjoyable. The statement 'I don't enjoy the things I used to love' directly reflects this symptom as the client is expressing a lack of pleasure from previously enjoyable activities. Choices A, C, and D do not specifically relate to anhedonia but rather indicate symptoms of anxiety, concentration difficulties, and sleep disturbances, respectively.
5. In evaluating a client's response to stress, what would indicate a secondary appraisal of the stressful event?
- A. When the individual judges the event to be benign
- B. When the individual judges the event to be irrelevant
- C. When the individual judges the resources and skills needed to deal with the event
- D. When the individual judges the event to be pleasurable
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A secondary appraisal occurs when an individual evaluates the resources and skills required to cope with a stressful event. This type of appraisal focuses on the person's perceived ability to manage the situation. In contrast, choices A, B, and D do not involve the assessment of resources and skills. Choice A relates to a benign judgment of the event, choice B to an irrelevant judgment, and choice D to a pleasurable judgment, which are aspects of primary rather than secondary appraisals.
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