ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Test Bank
1. A patient is taking testosterone for hypogonadism. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during this therapy?
- A. Increased risk of liver dysfunction
- B. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
- C. Increased risk of prostate cancer
- D. Increased risk of bone fractures
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct adverse effect to monitor for when a patient is taking testosterone for hypogonadism is an increased risk of cardiovascular events. Testosterone therapy has been associated with an elevated risk of cardiovascular events such as heart attack and stroke, especially in older patients. Monitoring cardiovascular health is crucial during testosterone therapy. The other choices are incorrect because testosterone therapy is not primarily linked to liver dysfunction (choice A), prostate cancer (choice C), or bone fractures (choice D).
2. An MRI scan of a 33-year-old female client with new-onset seizures has revealed a lesion on her frontal lobe. Which of the following signs and symptoms would most likely be a direct result of this lesion?
- A. Changes in sensation or movement in the client's limbs
- B. Fluctuations in blood pressure
- C. Changes in speech and reasoning
- D. Increased intracranial pressure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Changes in speech and reasoning. The frontal lobe is responsible for higher cognitive functions, including speech and reasoning. A lesion in this area can lead to difficulties in speech production, language comprehension, and reasoning abilities. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Changes in sensation or movement in the client's limbs are more associated with lesions in the motor or sensory cortices of the brain, not the frontal lobe. Fluctuations in blood pressure are often related to autonomic nervous system dysfunction, which is controlled by other brain regions. Increased intracranial pressure is typically seen in conditions like brain tumors or head trauma, not directly related to a frontal lobe lesion.
3. A 55-year-old male patient is taking finasteride (Proscar) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). What patient teaching should the nurse provide regarding the use of this medication?
- A. Avoid taking over-the-counter antacids while on this medication.
- B. This medication may decrease libido.
- C. This medication may take several months to improve symptoms.
- D. This medication may cause increased hair growth.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: The nurse should inform the patient that finasteride may take several months to improve symptoms of BPH. It is essential for patients to understand the delayed onset of action to manage their expectations and compliance. Choice A is incorrect because there is no significant interaction between finasteride and over-the-counter antacids. Choice B is incorrect as finasteride is more commonly associated with decreased libido rather than increased libido. Choice D is incorrect as finasteride is known to reduce hair growth rather than increase it.
4. A patient with hypogonadism is being treated with testosterone gel. What application instructions should the nurse provide?
- A. Apply the gel to the face and neck for maximum absorption.
- B. Apply the gel to the chest or upper arms and allow it to dry completely before dressing.
- C. Apply the gel to the genitals for improved results.
- D. Apply the gel to the scalp and back.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Testosterone gel should be applied to the chest or upper arms and allowed to dry completely before dressing to avoid transfer to others. Applying the gel to the face, neck, genitals, scalp, or back is not recommended as these areas may lead to unintentional transfer to others, inappropriate absorption, or potential side effects. Choice A is incorrect as applying the gel to the face and neck can lead to unwanted transfer. Choice C is incorrect as applying the gel to the genitals is not the recommended site for application. Choice D is incorrect as the scalp and back are not appropriate sites for applying testosterone gel.
5. Which of the following characterizes ductal carcinoma in situ?
- A. It is less common than lobular carcinoma in situ.
- B. Malignant cells have not invaded the stroma.
- C. It is considered a cancer precursor.
- D. Malignant cells have not invaded the stroma; it is considered a cancer precursor and has a higher risk for invasive cancer compared to lobular carcinoma in situ.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is that ductal carcinoma in situ is characterized by malignant cells that have not invaded the stroma, making it a cancer precursor with a higher risk for invasive cancer compared to lobular carcinoma in situ. Choice A is incorrect because ductal carcinoma in situ is more common than lobular carcinoma in situ. Choice B is incorrect as it only partially describes ductal carcinoma in situ without mentioning its potential for progression to invasive cancer. Choice C is incorrect because it does not capture the complete characteristics of ductal carcinoma in situ, which include the risk for invasive cancer.
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