Nursing Elites

1. A patient is taking testosterone for hypogonadism. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during this therapy?

• A. Increased risk of liver dysfunction
• B. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
• C. Increased risk of prostate cancer
• D. Increased risk of bone fractures

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct adverse effect to monitor for when a patient is taking testosterone for hypogonadism is an increased risk of cardiovascular events. Testosterone therapy has been associated with an elevated risk of cardiovascular events such as heart attack and stroke, especially in older patients. Monitoring cardiovascular health is crucial during testosterone therapy. The other choices are incorrect because testosterone therapy is not primarily linked to liver dysfunction (choice A), prostate cancer (choice C), or bone fractures (choice D).

2. A tension pneumothorax requires a needle thoracostomy and/or chest tube placement as treatment to which component of the pathophysiology of the condition?

• A. An accumulation of blood in the pleural space, which makes it difficult for the lungs to exchange gases.
• B. Extreme pain caused by a fractured rib
• C. A large accumulation of trapped air in the pleural space affecting both the lungs and heart.
• D. Sudden failure of the respiratory system due to fluid accumulation in the alveoli

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A tension pneumothorax is characterized by a large accumulation of trapped air in the pleural space, creating pressure that affects both the lungs and heart. This condition can lead to life-threatening consequences by shifting mediastinal structures and impairing cardiac function. Treatment involves decompressing the trapped air to relieve the tension. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not describe the primary pathophysiological mechanism of tension pneumothorax, which is the accumulation of air in the pleural space, not blood, rib fractures, or alveolar fluid accumulation.

3. A 43-year-old man has tested positive for systemic candidiasis, and the care team has decided on IV fluconazole as a first-line treatment. When administering this medication, the nurse should

• A. administer the drug with lactated Ringer's.
• B. infuse the drug no faster than 200 mg/h.
• C. avoid administering the drug through a peripheral IV.
• D. administer prophylactic heparin prior to the fluconazole.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When administering IV fluconazole, the nurse should avoid administering the drug through a peripheral IV. Fluconazole is known to cause phlebitis and tissue irritation if infused through a peripheral IV line. It is recommended to administer fluconazole through a central venous catheter to reduce the risk of complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as there is no specific recommendation to administer the drug with lactated Ringer's, infuse it at a particular rate, or administer prophylactic heparin prior to fluconazole in this scenario.

4. Following cardiothoracic surgery where controlled therapeutic hypothermia was utilized to decrease metabolic demands, the nurse responsible for monitoring this client postoperatively should be assessing for which potential complication related to cold cardioplegia?

• A. Thrombocytopenia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Coagulopathy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Coagulopathy is the correct answer. During therapeutic hypothermia, which lowers the body's temperature to reduce metabolic demands post-surgery, coagulopathy, or impaired blood clotting, is a potential complication due to the effects of cold cardioplegia. Thrombocytopenia (choice A) refers to a low platelet count and is not directly related to cold cardioplegia. Hypokalemia (choice B) is a condition of low potassium levels, and hyperglycemia (choice C) is high blood sugar levels, neither of which are primary complications of cold cardioplegia.

5. A client presents to the emergency department with lower right quadrant abdominal pain, fever, nausea, and occasional diarrhea. After palpating the abdomen, the client displays tenderness. What would the nurse anticipate the client to be experiencing?

• A. Pseudomembranous colitis
• B. Peptic ulcer disease
• C. Appendicitis
• D. Esophageal cancer

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Appendicitis. The symptoms described - lower right quadrant abdominal pain, fever, nausea, diarrhea, and tenderness upon palpation - are classic signs of appendicitis. Appendicitis is an inflammatory condition of the appendix that often presents with these symptoms and requires immediate medical attention. Choice A, Pseudomembranous colitis, typically presents with watery diarrhea and is associated with antibiotic use. Choice B, Peptic ulcer disease, commonly presents with epigastric pain related to meals and can be accompanied by nausea or vomiting, but it does not typically cause right lower quadrant pain. Choice D, Esophageal cancer, usually presents with symptoms related to swallowing difficulties, weight loss, and sometimes chest pain, but it is not associated with the symptoms described in the scenario.

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