ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2
1. What aspect of this woman's current health status would contraindicate the use of oral contraceptives?
- A. The woman has a diagnosis of type 2 diabetes.
- B. The woman has asthma and uses inhaled corticosteroids and bronchodilators.
- C. The woman has a family history of breast cancer.
- D. The woman takes an antiplatelet medication for coronary artery disease.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Women with type 2 diabetes are at higher risk of developing cardiovascular complications. Oral contraceptives further increase this risk due to their potential effects on blood pressure, lipid metabolism, and clotting factors. Choice B is incorrect as inhaled corticosteroids and bronchodilators do not contraindicate the use of oral contraceptives. Choice C is incorrect as a family history of breast cancer does not directly contraindicate the use of oral contraceptives. Choice D is also incorrect as taking an antiplatelet medication for coronary artery disease does not necessarily contraindicate the use of oral contraceptives.
2. A young man has received a diagnosis of androgen deficiency and has been prescribed testosterone. At clinic follow-up appointments, the nurse should prioritize which of the following assessments?
- A. Bladder ultrasound and urine testing for glucose and ketones
- B. Weight and measurement of blood pressure
- C. Hearing assessment and abdominal girth measurement
- D. Deep tendon reflexes and random blood glucose testing
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a patient receiving testosterone therapy for androgen deficiency, monitoring weight and blood pressure is crucial. Testosterone therapy can lead to weight gain and hypertension, making regular assessments of these parameters important to detect and manage any adverse effects. Choices A, C, and D are not the priority assessments for a patient on testosterone therapy. Bladder ultrasound and urine testing for glucose and ketones, hearing assessment and abdominal girth measurement, and deep tendon reflexes and random blood glucose testing are not directly related to the common side effects or monitoring requirements of testosterone therapy.
3. What is a critical point the nurse should include in patient education for a patient prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex)?
- A. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism.
- B. Tamoxifen may decrease the risk of osteoporosis.
- C. Tamoxifen may cause hot flashes and other menopausal symptoms.
- D. Tamoxifen may cause weight gain and fluid retention.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The critical point the nurse should include in patient education for a patient prescribed tamoxifen is that it may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism. This is crucial information because tamoxifen is known to promote blood clot formation, and patients need to be aware of the signs and symptoms of blood clots to seek prompt medical attention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as tamoxifen is not associated with decreasing the risk of osteoporosis, causing hot flashes and other menopausal symptoms, or directly causing weight gain and fluid retention.
4. A 10-year-old male is stung by a bee while playing in the yard. He experiences a severe allergic reaction and has to go to the ER. The nurse providing care realizes this reaction is the result of:
- A. Toxoids
- B. IgA
- C. IgE
- D. IgM
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: IgE. A severe allergic reaction, such as the one experienced by the 10-year-old male after being stung by a bee, is mediated by IgE. IgE is involved in common allergic responses, triggering the release of histamine and other chemicals that lead to allergy symptoms. Choice A, Toxoids, are inactivated toxins used in vaccines. Choice B, IgA, is mainly found in mucosal areas and secretions, playing a role in mucosal immunity. Choice D, IgM, is the first antibody produced in response to an infection.
5. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulant therapy. Which complication should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Pulmonary embolism
- B. Gastrointestinal bleeding
- C. Hemorrhagic stroke
- D. Renal insufficiency
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, pulmonary embolism. In a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) receiving anticoagulant therapy, the nurse should monitor for pulmonary embolism, as it is a serious complication. Pulmonary embolism occurs when a blood clot dislodges from the veins and travels to the lungs, potentially causing life-threatening consequences. Choices B, gastrointestinal bleeding, C, hemorrhagic stroke, and D, renal insufficiency, are not directly associated with deep vein thrombosis or anticoagulant therapy. While these complications may occur in other situations, they are not the primary concern when managing a client with a history of DVT.
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