ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2
1. What aspect of this woman's current health status would contraindicate the use of oral contraceptives?
- A. The woman has a diagnosis of type 2 diabetes.
- B. The woman has asthma and uses inhaled corticosteroids and bronchodilators.
- C. The woman has a family history of breast cancer.
- D. The woman takes an antiplatelet medication for coronary artery disease.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Women with type 2 diabetes are at higher risk of developing cardiovascular complications. Oral contraceptives further increase this risk due to their potential effects on blood pressure, lipid metabolism, and clotting factors. Choice B is incorrect as inhaled corticosteroids and bronchodilators do not contraindicate the use of oral contraceptives. Choice C is incorrect as a family history of breast cancer does not directly contraindicate the use of oral contraceptives. Choice D is also incorrect as taking an antiplatelet medication for coronary artery disease does not necessarily contraindicate the use of oral contraceptives.
2. Why is testosterone therapy prescribed for a 70-year-old man being treated for osteoporosis?
- A. To increase bone density
- B. To reduce the risk of fractures
- C. To enhance sexual performance
- D. To restore testosterone levels
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The primary reason for prescribing testosterone therapy for osteoporosis in men is to restore testosterone levels, not specifically to increase bone density. Testosterone plays a crucial role in maintaining bone density, so by restoring testosterone levels, it indirectly helps in maintaining bone density. Choices A and B are partially correct but do not address the primary reason for testosterone therapy in this context. Choice C is incorrect as the main focus of testosterone therapy in osteoporosis treatment is not related to enhancing sexual performance.
3. What signs and symptoms most likely prompted this patient to initially seek care?
- A. Malaise and fatigue
- B. Severe diarrhea
- C. Intermittent fever
- D. Dizziness and confusion
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Severe diarrhea. A patient who has recently returned from a trip to Nepal with a nongovernmental organization and is seeking care for amebiasis would most likely have been prompted by the symptom of severe diarrhea. Amebiasis is an infection caused by the parasite Entamoeba histolytica, commonly transmitted through contaminated food or water sources in developing countries like Nepal. The hallmark symptom of amebiasis is dysentery, which is characterized by severe diarrhea with blood or mucus in the stool. Malaise and fatigue (choice A) are nonspecific symptoms that may accompany many illnesses and are not specific to amebiasis. Intermittent fever (choice C) is not a typical presenting symptom of amebiasis, which primarily manifests with gastrointestinal symptoms. Dizziness and confusion (choice D) are also not typical symptoms associated with amebiasis.
4. Which of the following chronic inflammatory skin disorders is characterized by angiogenesis, immune cell activation (particularly T cells), and keratinocyte proliferation?
- A. Psoriasis
- B. Melanoma
- C. Atopic dermatitis
- D. Urticaria
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Psoriasis is the correct answer. Psoriasis is a chronic inflammatory skin disorder characterized by angiogenesis, immune cell activation (particularly T cells), and keratinocyte proliferation. Choice B, Melanoma, is a type of skin cancer involving melanocytes, not characterized by the features mentioned. Choice C, Atopic dermatitis, is a different inflammatory skin condition associated with pruritus and eczematous lesions, not primarily characterized by angiogenesis. Choice D, Urticaria, is a skin condition characterized by hives and wheals due to histamine release, not typically involving the features mentioned in the question.
5. What should the nurse teach the boy about anabolic steroid abuse?
- A. The ability of anabolic steroids to build muscle is greatly exaggerated in the media.
- B. Anabolic steroids are universally dangerous but are especially harmful to adolescents.
- C. The muscle mass resulting from steroid use will atrophy unless doses are continually increased.
- D. Anabolic steroids will reduce the boy's ability to perform weight-bearing exercise later in life.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because anabolic steroids are indeed universally dangerous, but they pose greater risks to adolescents due to their impact on growth and development. Choice A is incorrect because anabolic steroids do have the potential to build muscle mass, though not to the extent often portrayed in the media. Choice C is incorrect as muscle mass gained from steroid use may persist for a period even after discontinuation. Choice D is incorrect as anabolic steroids can enhance muscle performance initially, though long-term use can have adverse effects on health and not specifically on the ability to perform weight-bearing exercises.
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