ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2
1. A patient is starting on a new oral contraceptive. What should the nurse emphasize about the timing of the medication?
- A. Take the medication at the same time each day to maintain stable hormone levels.
- B. Oral contraceptives should be taken in the morning to avoid nighttime side effects.
- C. Oral contraceptives can be taken at any time of day as long as the schedule is consistent.
- D. Oral contraceptives are effective immediately upon starting, regardless of timing.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. It is crucial for patients taking oral contraceptives to take the medication at the same time each day to maintain stable hormone levels and ensure their effectiveness in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect because there is no specific requirement to take oral contraceptives in the morning. Choice C is incorrect because consistency in timing is essential, but it should be at the same time each day. Choice D is incorrect because oral contraceptives may take some time to reach peak effectiveness, so it is important to emphasize the need for consistent timing.
2. Which pathophysiologic process causes the decreased glomerular filtration rate in a patient with acute glomerulonephritis?
- A. Decreased renal-induced constriction of the renal arteries
- B. Immune complex deposition, increased capillary permeability, and cellular proliferation
- C. Necrosis of 70% or more of the nephrons secondary to increased kidney interstitial hydrostatic pressure
- D. Scar tissue formation throughout the proximal convoluted tubule secondary to toxin-induced collagen synthesis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Immune complex deposition, increased capillary permeability, and cellular proliferation. In acute glomerulonephritis, immune complexes deposit in the glomerulus, leading to inflammation, increased capillary permeability, and cellular proliferation. These processes collectively reduce the glomerular filtration rate. Choices A, C, and D do not accurately describe the pathophysiologic process in acute glomerulonephritis. Decreased renal-induced constriction of the renal arteries, necrosis of nephrons due to increased kidney interstitial hydrostatic pressure, and scar tissue formation in the proximal convoluted tubule are not the primary mechanisms responsible for the decreased filtration rate in this condition.
3. A patient develops itching and burning of the vaginal vault while taking an anti-infective to treat strep throat. What fungal agent has most likely caused the burning and itching?
- A. Cryptococcus neoformans
- B. Candida albicans
- C. Aspergillus
- D. Dermatophytes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Candida albicans. Candida albicans is a common fungal agent responsible for causing vaginal yeast infections characterized by itching and burning. It is known to overgrow in the vagina, especially when the normal vaginal flora is disrupted, such as during antibiotic use. Cryptococcus neoformans is more associated with causing meningitis in immunocompromised individuals, not vaginal symptoms. Aspergillus is more commonly associated with lung infections and allergic reactions, not vaginal infections. Dermatophytes typically cause skin infections like ringworm, not vaginal symptoms.
4. A patient suffers from dysmenorrhea. Which oral medication will be prescribed that has the ability to provide physiological actions on the neuroendocrine control of ovarian function?
- A. Estrogen
- B. Progestins
- C. Naproxen
- D. Ibuprofen
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Progestins are prescribed for dysmenorrhea as they help reduce menstrual pain by inhibiting ovulation and decreasing the production of prostaglandins. Estrogen (Choice A) is not typically used alone in dysmenorrhea treatment as it can worsen symptoms. Naproxen (Choice C) and Ibuprofen (Choice D) are nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) commonly used to relieve pain associated with dysmenorrhea, but they do not directly affect the neuroendocrine control of ovarian function like progestins do.
5. Right-sided heart failure is characterized by:
- A. Immunosuppression
- B. Pulmonary edema
- C. Peripheral edema
- D. Coughing
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Right-sided heart failure is characterized by peripheral edema, which results from the buildup of fluid in the body. This fluid accumulates in the extremities due to the heart's inability to effectively pump blood forward. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Immunosuppression is not a typical feature of right-sided heart failure. Pulmonary edema is more commonly associated with left-sided heart failure, where fluid accumulates in the lungs. Coughing is a symptom that can be present in various conditions but is not a defining characteristic of right-sided heart failure.
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