Nursing Elites

1. A patient is prescribed raloxifene (Evista) for osteoporosis. What is the primary therapeutic action of this medication?

• A. It stimulates the formation of new bone.
• B. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
• C. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines.
• D. It increases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Raloxifene works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density, which helps in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis. Choice A is incorrect as raloxifene does not directly stimulate the formation of new bone. Choice C is incorrect because raloxifene does not primarily affect calcium absorption in the intestines. Choice D is incorrect as raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.

2. Two people experience the same stressor yet only one is able to cope and adapt adequately. An example of the person with an increased capacity to adapt is the one with:

• A. A sense of purpose in life
• B. Circadian rhythm disruption
• C. Age-related renal dysfunction
• D. Excessive weight gain or loss

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A strong sense of purpose in life is associated with better stress coping mechanisms, which can enhance a person's capacity to adapt. Having a clear sense of purpose provides individuals with motivation, direction, and resilience to face challenges. Choices B, C, and D are not directly related to an increased capacity to adapt to stress. Circadian rhythm disruption, age-related renal dysfunction, and excessive weight gain or loss may have negative impacts on overall well-being and stress management.

3. Which of the following birthmarks usually fade or regress as the child gets older?

• A. Hemangiomas
• B. Congenital dermal melanocytosis (i.e., Mongolian spots)
• C. Macular stains
• D. Hemangiomas, congenital dermal melanocytosis (i.e., Mongolian spots), and macular stains

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Hemangiomas, congenital dermal melanocytosis (i.e., Mongolian spots), and macular stains. These three types of birthmarks are known to fade or regress as the child gets older. Hemangiomas are vascular birthmarks that often shrink and disappear over time. Congenital dermal melanocytosis, commonly known as Mongolian spots, usually fade by adolescence. Macular stains, also called salmon patches, tend to lighten and fade as a child grows. The other choices are incorrect because they do not typically fade or regress with age.

4. A nurse is teaching a patient about the use of raloxifene (Evista) for the prevention of osteoporosis. What is the primary therapeutic action of this medication?

• A. It decreases the absorption of calcium from the intestines.
• B. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
• C. It increases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
• D. It stimulates the formation of new bone.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Raloxifene, a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM), works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density. This action helps in preventing osteoporosis by maintaining bone strength. Choice A is incorrect as raloxifene does not affect the absorption of calcium from the intestines. Choice C is incorrect as raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys. Choice D is incorrect as raloxifene does not directly stimulate the formation of new bone; instead, it primarily works by reducing bone loss.

5. While assessing a critically ill client in the emergency department, the nurse notes on the cardiac monitor an R-on-T premature ventricular beat that develops into ventricular tachycardia (VT). Immediately, the client became unresponsive. The nurse knows that based on pathophysiologic principles, the most likely cause of the unresponsiveness is:

• A. metabolic acidosis that occurs spontaneously following any dysrhythmias.
• B. interruption of the blood/oxygen supply to the brain.
• C. massive cerebrovascular accident (CVA) resulting from increased perfusion.
• D. a blood clot coming from the heart and occluding the carotid arteries.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Ventricular tachycardia (VT) can disrupt the normal heart function, leading to a decreased cardiac output. This decreased output can interrupt the blood supply to the brain, causing the client to become unresponsive. Metabolic acidosis (Choice A) is not the most likely cause of unresponsiveness in this scenario. A massive cerebrovascular accident (CVA) (Choice C) would not result from increased perfusion. A blood clot occluding the carotid arteries (Choice D) may lead to a stroke but is not the most likely cause of sudden unresponsiveness in this situation.

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