a patient is prescribed raloxifene evista for osteoporosis what is the primary therapeutic action of this medication
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam

1. A patient is prescribed raloxifene (Evista) for osteoporosis. What is the primary therapeutic action of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Raloxifene works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density, which helps in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis. Choice A is incorrect as raloxifene does not directly stimulate the formation of new bone. Choice C is incorrect because raloxifene does not primarily affect calcium absorption in the intestines. Choice D is incorrect as raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.

2. How should rifampin most likely be administered to a patient diagnosed with tuberculosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Rifampin is typically administered orally, and it is recommended to be taken with food to enhance its absorption and reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Administering rifampin intramuscularly or intravenously is not the standard route of administration for this medication used in tuberculosis treatment.

3. Which of the following are risk factors for hypertension (HTN)?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tobacco use is a well-established risk factor for hypertension (HTN) as it can lead to increased blood pressure. High sugar intake and low-fat diets, as well as increased physical activity, are not directly associated with hypertension. While low-fat diets are generally recommended for overall health, they are not specifically linked to hypertension risk.

4. What condition can be caused by an excessive amount of growth hormone released by the pituitary gland in childhood?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Gigantism is the correct answer. It is a condition caused by excessive growth hormone release before the epiphyseal plates close, leading to abnormal growth. Acromegaly (choice A) is caused by excess growth hormone after the epiphyseal plates close, resulting in enlargement of bones and tissues. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (choice C) is characterized by the excessive release of antidiuretic hormone, leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. Dwarfism (choice D) is a condition characterized by significantly below-average height.

5. In which patient would the manifestation of a headache be a sign of a serious underlying disorder?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. New onset headaches in older adults, especially if worse at night, may indicate a serious condition like a brain tumor. Choice B describes symptoms commonly seen in migraines. Choice C describes tension-type headaches. Choice D describes symptoms of a menstrual migraine which is not typically associated with a serious underlying disorder.

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