Nursing Elites

1. A patient is hospitalized with active tuberculosis. The patient is receiving antitubercular drug therapy and is not responding to the medications. What do you suspect the patient is suffering from?

• A. Human immunodeficiency virus
• B. Drug-resistant tuberculosis
• C. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
• D. Vancomycin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient with active tuberculosis is not responding to antitubercular drug therapy, drug-resistant tuberculosis should be suspected. Drug-resistant tuberculosis occurs when the bacteria causing tuberculosis become resistant to the medications being used. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the scenario described does not align with HIV infection, methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus, or vancomycin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus.

2. A patient is prescribed tadalafil (Cialis) for erectile dysfunction. What critical contraindication should the nurse discuss with the patient?

• A. Use of nitrates
• B. Use of antihypertensive medications
• C. History of hypertension
• D. History of peptic ulcer disease

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Use of nitrates. Tadalafil (Cialis) is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates potentiate the hypotensive effects of tadalafil, leading to a potentially life-threatening drop in blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because antihypertensive medications, history of hypertension, and history of peptic ulcer disease are not critical contraindications for tadalafil use. While caution may be needed in patients with certain conditions, the highest priority is addressing the interaction with nitrates.

3. Which individual is likely to have the best prognosis for recovery from his or her insult to the peripheral nervous system? An adult:

• A. client who developed rhabdomyolysis and ischemic injury after a tourniquet application.
• B. who suffered a bone-depth laceration to the shoulder during a knife attack.
• C. who had his forearm partially crushed by gears during an industrial accident.
• D. client who had nerves transected during surgery to remove a tumor from the mandible.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Crushing-type injuries to the peripheral nervous system generally have a better prognosis compared to nerve transections or lacerations. In the scenario provided, the individual who had his forearm partially crushed by gears during an industrial accident is likely to have a better chance of recovery compared to nerve transection (choice D) or laceration (choice B). Rhabdomyolysis and ischemic injury after tourniquet application (choice A) are not directly related to peripheral nerve injury and do not indicate a better prognosis for recovery.

4. What is the most sensitive indicator of altered brain function?

• A. The ability to perform complex mathematics
• B. Altered level of consciousness
• C. The lack of cerebrospinal fluid production
• D. Intact cranial nerve functions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Altered level of consciousness. Changes in consciousness are the most sensitive indicator of altered brain function as they can signal underlying neurological issues. Option A, the ability to perform complex mathematics, though it involves brain function, is not as sensitive or direct an indicator as altered consciousness. Option C, the lack of cerebrospinal fluid production, is more related to conditions like hydrocephalus rather than a direct indicator of altered brain function. Option D, intact cranial nerve functions, indicate the normal functioning of peripheral nerves and are not as sensitive to changes in brain function as alterations in consciousness.

5. In a 41-year-old male patient with a complex medical history diagnosed with secondary hypogonadism, which of the following health problems is the most likely etiology of his diagnosis?

• A. Type 1 diabetes
• B. Mumps
• C. An inflammatory process in the testicles
• D. Testicular trauma

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: An inflammatory process in the testicles. Secondary hypogonadism in males can be caused by various factors, including an inflammatory process in the testicles. Mumps (choice B) can lead to orchitis but is less common in adults. Type 1 diabetes (choice A) is not a common cause of secondary hypogonadism. Testicular trauma (choice D) can cause primary hypogonadism but is less likely to cause secondary hypogonadism.

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