ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam
1. A male patient receiving androgen therapy is concerned about the risk of prostate cancer. What should the nurse explain about this risk?
- A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer.
- B. Finasteride does not affect the risk of prostate cancer, so regular screening is unnecessary.
- C. Finasteride may increase the risk of developing prostate cancer, so regular screenings are recommended.
- D. Finasteride has no effect on the risk of prostate cancer, so regular screenings are unnecessary.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer. However, regular screenings are still recommended to monitor for any potential issues. Choice B is incorrect because finasteride has been associated with a decreased risk of prostate cancer, making regular screenings important. Choice C is incorrect as finasteride is not known to increase the risk of developing prostate cancer. Choice D is incorrect as finasteride has shown a protective effect against prostate cancer, but regular screenings are still necessary to ensure early detection and monitoring.
2. A patient is starting on alendronate (Fosamax) for osteoporosis. What instructions should the nurse provide to ensure the effectiveness of the medication?
- A. Take the medication with a full glass of water and remain upright for at least 30 minutes.
- B. Take the medication at bedtime to ensure absorption during sleep.
- C. Take the medication with milk to enhance calcium absorption.
- D. Take the medication with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to take alendronate with a full glass of water and remain upright for at least 30 minutes. This is essential to prevent esophageal irritation and ensure proper absorption. Choice B is incorrect because taking alendronate at bedtime can increase the risk of esophageal irritation due to lying down. Choice C is incorrect as taking alendronate with milk can reduce its absorption. Choice D is incorrect because alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach to enhance its effectiveness.
3. When a patient asks the nurse what hypersensitivity is, how should the nurse respond? Hypersensitivity is best defined as:
- A. A reduced immune response found in most pathologic states
- B. A normal immune response to an infectious agent
- C. An excessive or inappropriate response of the immune system to a sensitizing antigen
- D. Antigenic desensitization
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Hypersensitivity is correctly defined as an excessive or inappropriate response of the immune system to a sensitizing antigen. This response leads to tissue damage or other clinical manifestations. Choice A is incorrect as hypersensitivity involves an exaggerated, not a reduced, immune response. Choice B is incorrect because hypersensitivity is not a normal immune response to an infectious agent but rather an exaggerated one. Choice D is incorrect as it refers to desensitization, which is the opposite of hypersensitivity.
4. A nurse is providing care for a 44-year-old male client who is admitted with a diagnosis of fever of unknown origin (FUO). Which characteristic of the client's history is most likely to have a bearing on his current diagnosis?
- A. The client is a smoker.
- B. The client has a history of IV drug use.
- C. The client was treated for an STD 2 years ago.
- D. The client has a family history of cardiac disease.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A history of IV drug use is significant in cases of fever of unknown origin, as it increases the risk of infections like endocarditis, which can present with persistent fever. Smoking (Choice A) is not directly linked to FUO. While a history of STD treatment (Choice C) may be relevant, it is less likely to be associated with FUO compared to IV drug use. Family history of cardiac disease (Choice D) is not typically a primary factor in the diagnosis of FUO.
5. A patient has acute respiratory failure (ARF). Which of the following would the nurse expect to find?
- A. Alkalosis and hyperventilation
- B. Hypoxemia and hypercapnia
- C. Alkalosis and high potassium
- D. Elevated sodium and acidosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In acute respiratory failure, hypoxemia (low blood oxygen) and hypercapnia (high blood carbon dioxide) are commonly observed. Choice A is incorrect because alkalosis (high pH) and hyperventilation are not typically seen in acute respiratory failure. Choice C is incorrect as it mentions alkalosis and high potassium, which are not characteristic of acute respiratory failure. Choice D is also incorrect because elevated sodium and acidosis are not typically associated with acute respiratory failure.
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