in which disorder does a staphylococcus aureus organism produce a toxin leading to exfoliation and large blister formation
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Pathophysiology Practice Questions

1. Which disorder is caused by a Staphylococcus aureus organism producing a toxin leading to exfoliation and large blister formation?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Bullous impetigo is the correct answer because it is caused by a Staphylococcus aureus toxin that leads to exfoliation and the formation of large blisters. Herpes simplex I virus (Choice A) causes cold sores and is not associated with exfoliation and blister formation. Necrotizing fasciitis (Choice C) is a severe skin infection involving the deeper layers of skin and subcutaneous tissues, typically caused by bacteria such as Streptococcus or Clostridium species, not Staphylococcus aureus. Cellulitis (Choice D) is a common bacterial skin infection, but it does not involve exfoliation and blister formation as seen in bullous impetigo.

2. Which of the following stores electrolytes and acts as an electrolyte pool?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Bones store electrolytes and act as a reservoir, maintaining a balance of essential minerals like calcium and phosphate. The correct pair in this context is 'Bone - Nails.' Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the brain, kidneys, liver, and pancreas perform other functions in the body and are not primarily responsible for storing electrolytes.

3. In Guillain-Barre syndrome, what pathophysiologic process underlies the deficits that accompany the degeneration of myelin in the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In Guillain-Barre syndrome, the destruction of myelin leads to axonal damage. If remyelination does not occur, the axon will eventually degenerate and die, impacting nerve function. Choice A is incorrect because the destruction of myelin does not affect Schwann cell production. Choice B is incorrect as the lack of myelin directly affects the conduction of nerve impulses, not the axonal transport system. Choice D is incorrect as a deficit of myelin does not predispose the client to infections by potential pathogens.

4. In a patient with a subconjunctival hemorrhage due to allergic rhinitis, which statement is accurate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with a subconjunctival hemorrhage secondary to allergic rhinitis, the hemorrhage is typically self-limiting and will resolve on its own within 2 weeks without the need for specific treatment. Referring the patient for immediate ophthalmologic examination is not necessary unless there are other concerning symptoms. Starting oral antihistamines may help manage the underlying allergic rhinitis but is not specifically indicated for the hemorrhage. Topical corticosteroids are not routinely prescribed for subconjunctival hemorrhage as they may have limited benefit and could potentially cause complications.

5. A male patient is being treated with testosterone gel for hypogonadism. What important instruction should the nurse provide regarding the application of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to apply the testosterone gel to the chest or upper arms. This is important to minimize the risk of transfer to others. Applying the gel to the lower abdomen, thighs, face, or neck can increase the risk of transfer to others, especially women and children who should avoid contact with testosterone gel. Applying it to the scalp and back is not recommended as these areas are not suitable for absorption of the medication.

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