Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is teaching a patient about the use of raloxifene (Evista) for the prevention of osteoporosis. What is the primary therapeutic action of this medication?

• A. It decreases the absorption of calcium from the intestines.
• B. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
• C. It increases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
• D. It stimulates the formation of new bone.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Raloxifene, a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM), works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density. This action helps in preventing osteoporosis by maintaining bone strength. Choice A is incorrect as raloxifene does not affect the absorption of calcium from the intestines. Choice C is incorrect as raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys. Choice D is incorrect as raloxifene does not directly stimulate the formation of new bone; instead, it primarily works by reducing bone loss.

2. A 25-year-old just had a colonoscopy and was diagnosed with Crohn disease. Which of the following is consistent with this diagnosis?

• A. Right lower quadrant cramping
• B. Severe bloody diarrhea
• C. Nausea and vomiting
• D. Mostly affects the rectum

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Crohn's disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract. Right lower quadrant cramping is consistent with Crohn's disease as it commonly involves the terminal ileum, which is located in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen. Severe bloody diarrhea is more characteristic of ulcerative colitis, another type of inflammatory bowel disease. Nausea and vomiting are not specific symptoms of Crohn's disease. Crohn's disease can affect any part of the digestive tract, not just the rectum, so it is not accurate to say it mostly affects the rectum.

3. A male patient receiving androgen therapy is concerned about prostate cancer. What should the nurse explain about the risks associated with this therapy?

• A. Finasteride has been shown to reduce the risk of developing prostate cancer.
• B. Finasteride has no impact on the risk of developing prostate cancer.
• C. Finasteride may increase the risk of developing prostate cancer.
• D. Finasteride has no effect on the risk of prostate cancer.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Finasteride, a type of androgen therapy, has been shown to reduce the risk of developing prostate cancer. It works by shrinking the prostate gland, which can help lower the risk of developing prostate cancer. However, while it may reduce the risk, regular screening is still recommended to monitor for any potential issues. Choice B is incorrect because finasteride does have an impact on reducing the risk of prostate cancer. Choice C is incorrect as finasteride is not known to increase the risk of developing prostate cancer. Choice D is incorrect as finasteride does have an effect on reducing the risk of prostate cancer.

4. When reviewing the purpose/action of neurotransmitters as they interact with different receptors, the nursing instructor gives an example using acetylcholine. When acetylcholine is released at the sinoatrial node in the right atrium of the heart, it is:

• A. positively charged.
• B. inhibitory.
• C. overstimulated.
• D. dormant.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Acetylcholine acts as an inhibitory neurotransmitter at the sinoatrial node. It slows down the heart rate by decreasing the firing rate of the sinoatrial node, which serves as the heart's natural pacemaker. Neurotransmitters do not have a charge, so choice A is incorrect. Choice C is wrong as overstimulation is not a characteristic of acetylcholine at the sinoatrial node. Choice D is also incorrect because acetylcholine actively influences heart rate regulation when released at the sinoatrial node.

5. A client with diabetes mellitus has just undergone a right, below-the-knee amputation following gangrene infection. A few days after the amputation, the client confides in the nurse that he still feels his right foot. Knowing the pathophysiologic principles behind this, the nurse can:

• A. administer a psychotropic medication to help the client cope with the sensation of his amputated leg.
• B. explain that many amputees have this sensation and that one theory surmises the end of a regenerating nerve becomes trapped in the scar tissue of the amputation site.
• C. call the physician and request an order for a psychological consult.
• D. educate the client that this area has an unusually abnormal increase in sensitivity to sensation but that it will go away with time.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The sensation of feeling the amputated limb is known as phantom limb pain, which is common after amputation. One theory suggests that it occurs because the end of a regenerating nerve becomes trapped in the scar tissue at the amputation site. Administering psychotropic medication (choice A) is not the first-line treatment for phantom limb pain. Requesting a psychological consult (choice C) is premature without first addressing the known pathophysiological basis of phantom limb pain. Educating the client that the sensitivity will go away with time (choice D) is not entirely accurate as phantom limb pain can persist long-term.

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