ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet
1. A client who is at 10 weeks of gestation is being taught about nutrition during pregnancy. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should consume 1,200 calories per day.
- B. I should increase my daily intake of folic acid.
- C. I should drink 2 liters of water each day.
- D. I should limit my intake of iron-rich foods.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Increasing folic acid intake is crucial during pregnancy to prevent neural tube defects. Option A is incorrect because calorie requirements during pregnancy vary and are generally higher than 1,200 calories per day. Option C is not specific to pregnancy nutrition teaching, although hydration is important. Option D is incorrect as iron-rich foods are typically recommended during pregnancy to prevent anemia.
2. A nurse is preparing to perform tracheostomy care for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Apply a sterile dressing.
- B. Suction the tracheostomy.
- C. Remove the inner cannula.
- D. Clean the stoma with sterile saline.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Suctioning the tracheostomy should be performed first to clear the airway of secretions and ensure proper oxygenation before proceeding with other care. This helps maintain a patent airway and prevent complications such as aspiration. Applying a sterile dressing, removing the inner cannula, or cleaning the stoma can follow after ensuring adequate airway clearance through suctioning.
3. When providing dietary teaching for a new prescription of phenelzine, which of the following foods should be avoided?
- A. Broccoli
- B. Yogurt
- C. Cream Cheese
- D. Fruit Juice
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Broccoli. Foods high in tyramine, such as broccoli, should be avoided when taking MAOIs like phenelzine to prevent a hypertensive crisis. Yogurt, cream cheese, and fruit juice do not contain significant levels of tyramine and can be safely consumed while on phenelzine.
4. A client is being assessed in the PACU. Which of the following findings indicates decreased cardiac output?
- A. Shivering
- B. Oliguria
- C. Bradypnea
- D. Constricted pupils
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Oliguria is a sign of decreased cardiac output. Decreased cardiac output can lead to poor renal perfusion, resulting in decreased urine output (oliguria). This requires immediate intervention to improve cardiac function and perfusion. Shivering (Choice A) is a response to cold stress and does not directly indicate decreased cardiac output. Bradypnea (Choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is more indicative of respiratory issues rather than decreased cardiac output. Constricted pupils (Choice D) are associated with the parasympathetic nervous system response and not directly related to cardiac output.
5. A nurse is teaching a prenatal class about infection prevention. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I can visit someone with chickenpox 5 days after the sores crust.
- B. I should avoid cleaning my cat's litter box during pregnancy.
- C. I should wash my hands with hot water for 10 seconds after gardening.
- D. I can take antibiotics for viral infections.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because avoiding cleaning the cat's litter box during pregnancy reduces the risk of toxoplasmosis, which can be harmful to the developing fetus. Choice A is incorrect because visiting someone with chickenpox should be avoided as it is highly contagious. Choice C is incorrect as handwashing after gardening should involve soap and water, not just hot water, for effective infection prevention. Choice D is incorrect because antibiotics are ineffective against viral infections.
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